DMER Question Paper / Provisional Key : PGM-CET / PGD-CET Maharashtra
Organization : Directorate Of Medical Education & Research Maharashtra
Exam : PGM-CET / PGD-CET
Document Type : Question Paper Booklets & Provisional Keys
Website : dmer.org
Download Model/Sample Question Paper: https://www.med-edu.in/
Home Page : http://www.timespro.com/
PGM-CET 2014 :
Version 11 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgm11.pdf
Version 22 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgm22.pdf
Version 33 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgm33.pdf
Version 44 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgm44.pdf
PGD-CET 2014 :
Version 11 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgd11.pdf
Version 22 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgd22.pdf
Version 33 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgd33.pdf
Version 44 Booklet : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7125-pgd44.pdf
PGM-CET / PGD-CET Sample paper
Question Paper Booklets & Provisional Keys :
Instructions to Candidates
1. The Question Booklet has one seal sticker. Examinee should open the seal at 10.00 a.m.
2. This question booklet contains 300 Objective Type Questions (Single Best Response Type MCQ) in the subjects of MBBS.
Related / Similar Question Paper :
SVIMS PGET 2016 Question Paper
3. The Question Paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheets are issued to examinees separately at the beginning of the examination session.
4. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.
5. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark appropriate entries/answers correctly. Special care should be taken to fill QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, QUESTION BOOKLET SERIAL No. and PGM-CET Roll No. accurately. The correctness of entries has to be cross-checked by the invigilators. The candidate must sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
6. Read each question carefully.
Determine ONE correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question. All the candidates are instructed to carefully see in Question Booklet the Serial No. of MCQ and the sequence of options A), B), C) and D) in the MCQ while entering the answer in the Answer Sheet.
7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering the particular question, with Black ink Ball point pen only, in the OMR Answer Sheet. Candidate should completely darken one and the only one best response (oval). Candidate should not use any other method for answering i.e half circle, dot, tick mark, cross etc. as these may not be read by the scanner. Answer sheet of each candidate will be evaluated by computerized scanning method only (Optical Mark Reader) and there will not be any manual checking during evaluation and verification.
8. Each answer with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There is No Negative Marking. If the examinee has marked two or more answers or has done scratching and overwriting in the Answer Sheet in response to any question, or has marked the circles inappropriately, mark(s) shall NOT be awarded for such answer/s.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
10. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the Answer Sheet.
11. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and answersheet. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet are to be returned to the invigilator.
12. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the examination session is over.
Sample Questions
PGM – CET – 2014
PGM 11
1. Which of the following contributes to the development of the thoraco-abdominal diaphragm ?
A) Pleuropericardial membrane B) Dorsal mesentery of oesophagus
C) Splanchnopleuric mesoderm D) Intermediate mesoderm
2. Which of the following muscle is pierced while tapping of pleural fluid in mid-axillary line in 6th intercostal space ?
A) Pectoralis Major B) Transverse thoracis
C) Serratus Anterior D) External oblique
3. A stab wound to the arm severs the musculocutaneous nerve in a young girl resulting in
A) Loss of sensations on medical aspect of forearm
B) Weakness in supination of the forearm
C) Difficulty in extending the elbow
D) Paralysis of Teres major muscle
4. Incudo-stapedial joint is which type of synovial joint ?
A) Plain B) Saddle
C) Ball and Socket D) Condylar
5. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies following muscles EXCEPT
A) Posterior cricoarytenoid B) Lateral cricoarytenoid
C) Cricothyroid D) Oblique artenoid
6. First right posterior intercostal vein drains into
A) azygous vein B) accessory azygous vein
C) superior intercostal vein D) right brachio-cephalic vein
7. Zona fasciculata of suprarenal gland produces
A) Minerelo-corticoids B) Gluco-corticoids
C) Sex hormones D) Adrenaline
8. Gluteus maximus muscle is innervated by
A) superior gluteal nerve B) inferior gluteal nerve
C) pudendal nerve D) subcostal nerve
9. Septal papillary muscle is present in
A) left atrium B) right atrium C) left ventricle D) right ventricle
10. Portocaval anastomosis is present in the following areas of liver
A) Porta hepatis B) Bare area of liver
C) Gall bladder fossa D) Groove for Inferior vena cava
11. Inversion and Eversion occur at which joint ?
A) Ankle B) Subtalar
C) Inferior tibio-fibular D) Calcaneocuboid
12. Which of the following nucleus is associated with archicerebellum ?
A) Fastigial B) Globosus
C) Emboli formis D) Dentate
13. The proximal part of tubotympanic recess gives rise to the
A) Pharyngo-tympanic tube B) Tympanic antrum
C) Middle ear cavity D) External ear
14. Injury to common peroneal nerve at the neck of fibula will cause
A) Foot drop
B) Inability to evert the foot
C) Sensory loss over antero-lateral part of leg
D) All of the above
15. In “Housemaids knee” which of the following bursa is affected ?
A) Suprapatellar B) Superficial infrapatellar
C) Deep infrapatellar D) Prepatellar
16. What is the clearance of a substance when its concentration in the plasma is
10 mg/dL, its concentration in the urine is 100 mg/dL, and urine flow is 2 mL/min ?
A) 10 mL/min B) 12 mL/min C) 20 mL/min D) 25 mL/min
17. The dicrotic notch on the aortic pressure curve is caused by the closure of
A) mitral valve B) tricuspid valve
C) aortic valve D) pulmonary valve
18. Which of the following pituitary hormones is an opioid peptide ?
A) ß MSH B) ACTH C) a MSH D) ß endorphin
19. The neurotransmitter producing vagally mediated increase in Gastrin secretion is
A) GRP B) Substance P C) GIP D) Guanylin
20. 1b type of nerve fibers carry afferent impulses from
A) Muscle spindles B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) Golgi tendon organs D) Nociceptors
21. Growth hormone secretion is decreased in
A) REM sleep B) Stress C) Exercise D) Fasting
22. Resting membrane potential in mammalian spinal motor neurone is close to equilibrium potential of
A) Na+ B) Cl– C) K+ D) Mg++