aphc.gov.in Question Paper Civil Judge : High Court of Andhra Pradesh

Organisation : High Court of Andhra Pradesh APHC
Recruitment Name : Civil Judge
Document Type : Question Paper
Year : 2024
Website : https://aphc.gov.in/

High court of Andhra Pradesh Civil Judge

1. With reference to the AP Excise Act, 1968, read the following statements and select the correct option.
A. If a license or permit is cancelled or suspended under Section 31 of the Act, no compensation or refund of any fee will be made.
B. When the license is withdrawn, proportionate fee shall be refunded.
Options :
1. A is correct, but B is incorrect
2. A is incorrect, but B is correct
3. A and B both are incorrect
4. A and B both are correct

2. Chapter VIII (Sections 51 to 62) of the AP Excise Act, 1968, deals with
Options :
1. appeals and revision
2. detection, investigation, and trial of offences
3. offences and penalties
4. license and permit

3. As per Section 2 (15) of the AP Excise Act, 1968, ‘foreign liquor’ includes every liquor imported in India, other than _____________.
Options :
1. Indian liquor and arrack
2. beer
3. toddy
4. wine

4. As per AP Excise Act, 1968, who is authorised to establish ‘distillers and warehouses’
Options :
1. Inspector of Excise with the approval of the Commissioner
2. Excise Superintendent in consultation with the Collector
3. The Commissioner with the previous sanction of the Government
4. The Collector with the previous sanction of the Excise commissioner

5. Which Section of the AP Excise Act, 1968, prohibits employment of children and persons suffering from contagious diseases to be employed by a license holder for the purpose of selling intoxicants?
Options :
1. Section 18
2. Section 20
3. Section 19
4. Section 21

6. Every offence under AP Gaming Act, 1974, is
Options :
1. cognizable only
2. non cognizable only
3. cognizable and non bailable
4. bailable only

7. As per the AP Gaming Act, 1974, whoever is found gaming in a public street or throughfare in any public place, shall be punishable with
Options :
1. only imprisonment for a term up to three months
2. imprisonment for a term up to three months or with fine or both
3. only fine
4. imprisonment for term up to two months or fine

8. Which Section of the AP Land Encroachment Act, 1905, states that decision as to the rate or amount of assessment, rent or fee payable under Section 3 shall NOT be questioned in any civil court?
Options :
1. Section 4
2. Section 5
3. Section 7
4. Section 6

9. As per Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, admissions are not conclusive proof of the matter admitted, but they may operate
Options :
1. as estoppel
2. as binding in nature
3. as partially admissible
4. as presumption

10. Which of the following Sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, states that, no confession made by any person whilst in custody of police officer, unless made in immediate presence of a Magistrate, shall be proved as against such person?
Options :
1. Section 25
2. Section28
3. Section 26
4. Section 27

11. With reference to Indian Contract Act, 1872, read the following statements and select the correct option.
A. Consideration is not necessary for creation of agency.
B. The authority of agent must always be expressed only.
C. An agent is bound to tender proper accounts to his principle on demand.
Options :
1. All three, A, B, and C are correct
2. All A, B, and C are incorrect
3. Only A and C are correct, but B is incorrect
4. Only B and C are correct, but A is incorrect

12. The power of revision under Section 401 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, can be exercised by
Options :
1. Court of Session
2. Supreme Court
3. High Court
4. Director of Prosecution

13. As per Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no objection as to place of suing shall be allowed by Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the ________.
Options :
1. Court of First instance at the earliest possible opportunity
2. Court of Second instance within 15 days of filing the suit
3. Court of First instance within 30 days of first hearing
4. Court at any time before pronouncement of judgment

14. As per provisions of Section 102 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, no second appeal shall lie from any decree when the subject matter of the original suit is for money NOT exceeding _________.
Options :
1. fifty thousand rupees
2. forty thousand rupees
3. twenty-five thousand rupees
4. seventy-five thousand rupees

15. Powers of Appellate Court are laid down in ________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
Options :
1. Section 386
2. Section 385
3. Section 387
4. Section 389

16. A leaves a cow in the custody of B to be taken care of. The cow gives birth to a calf. With reference to Section 163 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, select the correct option.
Options :
1. B has to deliver A, both cow and calf.
2. B need not to deliver the calf to A.
3. B can deliver either the cow or the calf.
4. A and B can sell both cow and calf and share the proceeds.

17. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, deals with
Options :
1. presumption of dowry death
2. presumption as to abetment of suicide
3. birth during marriage, conclusive proof of legitimacy
4. burden of proof as to particular fact

18. A sells B an unsound horse in an auction. A says nothing to B about the unsoundness of the horse.
Options :
1. This is fraud on the part of A.
2. This is misrepresentation on the part of A.
3. This is not fraud on the part of A.
4. This is coercion on the part of A.

19. With reference to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, select the INCORRECT option.
Options :
1. Every charge shall state the offence with which the accused is charged.
2. The law and section of law against which the offence is said to have been committed shall be mentioned in the charge.
3. The charge may be written in any language.
4. The fact with date and place of previous conviction of accused, if any shall be stated in the charge.

20. As per Rule 21 of the AP Civil Rules of Practice, 1990, every pleading or other documents filed in court shall bear the date
Options :
1. only on which the signature of the party is affixed
2. only on which it is filed
3. on which the signature of party is affixed, the date of presentation and the date of filing in court
4. of presentation only

21. With reference to AP Civil Rules of Practice, 1990, interlocutory application means, an application in the court, in any suit, appeal or proceedings, already instituted in such court, other than
Options :
1. proceedings for execution of decree
2. proceeding for orders only
3. proceedings for suit against government
4. proceedings in representative suit

22. As per Rule 30 of the AP Civil Rules of Practice, 1990, the Vakalat Nama should be in Form ________.
Options :
1. 12
2. 10
3. 11
4. 8

23. Under Section 166-A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, a letter to competent authority for investigation in a country or place outside India is called
Options :
1. letter rogatory
2. petition for investigation
3. diplomatic request
4. letter of mutual assistance

24. The power to suspend or remit sentence under Section 432 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, lies with the ________.
Options :
1. High Court
2. President of India
3. Governor of State
4. Appropriate Government

25. With reference to AP Criminal Rules of Practice and Circulars, 1990, read the following statements and select the correct option.
A. In cases prosecuted by the police, the police officer shall not, as a rule be employed to interpret the evidence of a witness.
B. For an offence punishable with death or life imprisonment, an advocate with not less than 2 years standing can be appointed to defend the accused.
Options :
1. A is correct, but B is incorrect
2. A is incorrect, but B is correct
3. A and B both are correct
4. A and B both are incorrect

26. As per Rule 79 of the AP Criminal Rules of Practice and Circulars, 1990, Session’s judge and Magistrate shall maintain a diary in Administrative Form No. ______ to record proceedings of each day.
Options :
1. 12
2. 10
3. 11
4. 14

Scheme Of Examination for Civil Judge

The process of selection is as follows:
a) For the purpose of short-listing the Applicants, the High Court will conduct Screening Test (Computer Based Test) for 100 marks comprising of 100 multiple choice objective type Questions. The duration of examination will be two (2) hours.
** The Applicants, who secure 40% and above marks in the screening test will be short-listed in the ratio of 1:10 of the available vacancies, for written examination.
** Provided that if there are more than one candidate who have secured identical marks in the screening test, all such candidates shall be called for the written examination.
** The marks obtained in the screening test shall not be added to the marks obtained in the written examination and they shall not be counted for determining final order of merit in selection of the applicants, as the screening test is conducted for the purpose of short listing the applicants only.

b) Written Examination consists the under mentioned (3) papers. Each paper will carry 100 marks. The duration of each paper is three (3) hours. The Questions In the examinations shall be answered only in English (except translation test).
I) Civil Laws,
II) Criminal Laws and
III) English Translation test for 25 marks and Essay Writing test for 75 marks on legal subject. (Translation Test is from English to Telugu and Telugu to English only).

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