RGU RGUCET Question Paper Common Entrance Test : Rajiv Gandhi University

Organisation : Rajiv Gandhi University RGU
Exam Name : RGUCET 2024 Common Entrance Test Post Graduate Diploma (Tourism Management)
Document Type : Question Paper
Year : 2024
Website : https://rgu.ac.in/

RGU Common Entrance Test

1 Identify the sentences from below that have finite verbs:
A) Paul runs to work every day.
B) They have run away together.
C) Tim gave Paul a menacing look.
D) Katie was watching TV when the phone rang.
a) Only A
b) A & B
c) B & D
d) A & C

2 Identify the sentences from below that have non-finite verbs:
A) It took courage to continue after the accident.
B) Leaving home can be very traumatic.
C) Leave immediately when you are asked to do so.
D) My sister spoke French on holiday
a) A, B, & C
b) B, C, & D
c) A, B, & D
d) B & D B

3 Match the antonyms of the words mentioned:
A. Terrible i. None
B. Glory ii. Debasement
C. Frugal iii. Soothing
D. All iv. Extravagant
a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
c) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

4 Match the synonyms of the words mentioned:
A. Foster i. List
B. Germinate ii. Nurturing
C. Enumerate iii. Letter
D. Epistle iv. Sprout
a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
b) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
c) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
d) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows:
“Sarah loved to visit her grandmother’s house in the countryside. The house was surrounded by tall oak trees and a beautiful garden filled with colourful flowers. Every morning, Sarah would wake up early to help her grandmother water the plants and pick fresh vegetables for breakfast. One of her favourite activities was reading books in the cozy nook by the fireplace, especially on rainy days.”
5 Identify the prepositional phrase(s) in the passage.
A) in the countryside
B) Sarah loved to visit
C) pick fresh vegetables for breakfast
D) especially on rainy days
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Both A & B

6 Identify the sentence(s) from below that is/are in direct speech:
A) Rohit said to him, “What’s the matter?”
B) He said he had finished.
C) She said she had to go.
D) Heena asked if we should start.
a) Only A
b) Both A & B
c) Both C & D
d) All of these Only

7 Identify the sentence(s) from below that is/are in indirect speech:
A) The father said to his son, ‘Go and pay your fee at once.’
B) Ram informed me that he was studying for her exams.
C) Rohit said, “I can swim in deep waters”.
D) He said he would be there at 4 p.m.
a) Only B
b) Both B & D
c) Only D
d) Both A & B

8 Match the following subjects with the correct verb forms:
A) He i) are
B) They ii) has
C) We iii) walks
D) The dog iv) walk
a) A-ii, B-i, Civ, D-iii
b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
d) A-iii, B-iv, Ci, D-ii

9 Read the following statement and respond with the correct alternative. Articles (“a,” “an,” “the”) can only be used before singular nouns.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends on the context
d) Articles are never used with nouns

10 What is the best determiner to fill the blank?
We need _____ milk for the recipe, but I don’t know if we have any.
a) an
b) a
c) the
d) some some

11 Who does the possessive pronoun “its” refer to in the passage?
The old house sat perched on the cliff, its windows boarded shut like vacant eyes.
a) The windows
b) The cliff
c) The house
d) The people

12 Choose the sentence with the correct use of a semicolon:
A) I have a big test tomorrow; because I have to study, I can’t go out tonight.
B) I have a big test tomorrow; I can’t go out tonight.
C) I have a big test tomorrow; and I need to get plenty of rest.
D) I have a big test tomorrow; but I still might go out tonight.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

13 Which sentence uses the correct form of the verb?
A) She don’t like eating vegetables.
B) He go to the gym every morning.
C) They has finished their homework.
D) We are going to the park later.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

14 Match the following types of questions with their descriptions:
Type of question Description
A. Factual i. Tests your knowledge of basic information.
B. Inferential ii. Asks you to examine information and identify its parts or relationships.
C. Analytical iii. Requires you to judge the value or effectiveness of something.
D. Evaluative iv. Requires you to make a conclusion based on the information provided.
a) A-i, B-iv, Cii, D-iii
b) A-ii, B-iii, Civ, D-i
c) A-i, B-iii, Cii, D-iv
d) A-iv, B-ii, Ci, D-iii

15 Sate whether true or false.
Pronouns must always refer back to the closest noun in the sentence.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends on the context
d) Pronouns cannot refer to nouns

16 Which word in the sentence is the degree adverb? The movie was surprisingly entertaining.
a) was
b) surprisingly
c) entertaining
d) the

17 What part of speech is the word “wafting” in this passage?
The aroma of freshly baked bread filled the kitchen, wafting from the oven where a golden loaf awaited.
a) noun
b) verb
c) adjective
d) adverb

18 In the sentence “She wore a bright red dress.” The word “dress” is a:
A) direct object
B) indirect object
C) abstract noun
D) an article
a) Only A
b) Both A & C
c) Only C
d) Both C & D

19 Original Sentence: The tourists were amazed by the beauty of the ancient city.
Which of the following sentences best expresses the same idea but in a passive voice structure?
A) The ancient city amazed the tourists.
B) Beauty amazed the tourists of the ancient city.
C) The tourists did find the ancient city beautiful.
D) By the beauty of the ancient city, the tourists were amazed.
a) Both A & B
b) Only B
c) Only A
d) None

20 Match the following words with their one-word substitutes:
A. Feeling extreme happiness i. Ambulatory
B. Excessively talkative person ii. Garrulous
C. Fear of public speaking iii. Euphoria
D. To travel by foot iv. Glossophobia
a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
c) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
d) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

General Instructions of Candidates

PLEASE READ ALL THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE MAKING ANY ENTRY.
1. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
2. Candidate must write his/her Roll Number on the space provided.
3. This Test Booklet contains 100 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) from the concerned subject. Each question carries 1 mark. There shall be negative marking of 0.25 against each wrong attempt.
4. Please check the Test Booklet to verify that the total pages and total number of questions contained in the test booklet are the same as those printed on the top of the first page. Also check whether the questions are in sequential order or not.
5. Candidates are not permitted to enter into the examination hall after the commencement of the entrance test or leave the examination hall within one hour thirty minutes.
6. Making any identification mark in the OMR Answer Sheet or writing Roll Number anywhere other than the specified places will lead to disqualification of the candidate.
7. Candidates shall maintain silence inside and outside the examination hall. If candidates are found violating the instructions mentioned herein or announced in the examination hall, they will be summarily disqualified from the entrance test.
8. In case of any dispute, the decision of the Entrance Test Committee shall be final and binding.
9. The OMR Answer Sheet consists of two copies, the Original copy and the Student’s copy.

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