mpscmanipur.gov.in Limited Departmental Examination MHS Grade IV Medical Officers Previous Years Questions

Organisation : Manipur Public Service Commission
Exam : Limited Departmental Examination
Post : MHS Grade IV Medical Officers
Subject : Medical Science
Year : 2017/2018/2014
Document Type : Previous Year’s Questions
Website : https://mpscmanipur.gov.in/question.html

MPSC MHS Grade IV Medical Officers Previous Year Question

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 200

Related : MPSC Limited Departmental Examination Excise Officers Previous Year Question : www.pdfquestion.in/33205.html

Instructions

1. The OMR Sheet is separately supplied to you. Fill in all the entries in the OMR Sheet correctly, failing which your OMR Sheet shall not be evaluated.

2. This Question Booklet contains 200 questions. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You have to select ONLY ONE response which you consider the best and mark it on the OMR Sheet.

3. You must check the Question Booklet and ensure that it contains all the questions and see that no page is missing or repeated. Discrepancies, if any in the Question Booklet or in the OMR Sheet, you must be reported to the invigilator immediately and Question Booklet / OMR Sheet shall be replaced.

4. Encode clearly the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the OMR Sheet.

5. All questions carry equal marks. Attempt ALL questions. Your total marks will depend only on the number of correct responses marked by you in the OMR Sheet.

6. Rough work must not be done on the OMR Sheet. Use the blank space at the last page of the Question Booklet for rough work.

7. Once you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over the OMR Sheet to the Invigilator.In no case you should leave the Examination Hall without returning the OMR Sheet. Candidates are allowed to take away their Question Booklets. The duplicate OMR Sheet may also be taken away by the candidates.

8. There is no penalty for wrong answers.

Download Question Paper :
Paper – I 2018 :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/33210-MO2018.pdf 
Paper – I 2017 :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/33210-MO2017.pdf
Paper – I 2014 :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/33210-MO2014.pdf

Medical Science

1. Cori’s cycle transfers:
a. Glucose from muscles to liver
b. Lactate from muscles to liver
c. Lactate from liver to muscles
d. Pyruvate from liver to muscles

2. The enzymes of urea synthesis are found in:
a. Mitochondria only
b. Cytosol only
c. Both mitochondria and cytosol
d. Nucleus

3. The presence of bilirubin in the urine without urobilinogen suggests:
a. Obstructive jaundice
b. Hemolytic jaundice
c. Pernicious anemia
d. Damage to the hepatic parenchyma

4. Ketone bodies are synthesized in:
a. Adipose tissue
b. Liver
c. Muscles
d. Brain

5. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of:
a. Vitamin B6
b. Folic acid
c. Thiamin
d. Vitamin B12

6. To calculate the proper power of the intraocular lens, which measurement is most essential?
a. Preoperative refraction
b. Corneal thickness
c. Horizontal ‘white-to-white’ corneal measurement
d. Axial length

7. Giant papillary conjunctivitis is seen in:
a. Soft contact lens wearers
b. Ocular prosthesis
c. Hard contact lens wearers
d. All of the above

8. A 45-year old welder comes to the emergency directly from work and complains of bilateral pain and photophobia. The most likely cause is:
a. Infrared burn to the eyes
b. Acute photic keratitis
c. Ultraviolet absorption by lens
d. Retinal toxicity

9. Elevated intraocular pressure may be associated with uveitis because of:
a. Trabeculitis
b. Iris stromal edema
c. Keratic precipitates
d. All of the above

10. Which of the following is the most common presentation of retinoblastoma?
a. Pseudohypopyon
b. A red eye
c. Leukokoria
d. Neovascular glaucoma

11. Diaphragmatic hernia can occur in following sites except:
a. Oesophageal opening
b. Bochdalek triangle
c. Foramen of Morgagni
d. Inferior vena cava opening

12. Locking of knee joint is caused by:
a. Quadriceps femoris
b. Gastrocnemius
c. Popliteus
d. Rectus femoris

13. Common peroneal nerve can be rolled against the:
a. Neck of fibula
b. Neck of tibia
c. Lower end of fibula
d. Lower end of tibia

14. All of the following nerves contribute to sensory supply of face except:
a. Facial
b. Maxillary
c. Mandibular
d. Ophthalmic

15. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome is caused by compression of which nerve:
a. Ulnar
b. Radial
c. Median
d. Musculocutaneous

16. Anti-LKM antibodies are found in:
a. Inflammmatory Myopathies
b. Behcet’ Syndrome
c. HCV Infection
d. Primary Biliary Cirrhosis

17. Fragile X syndrome is:
a. autosomal dominant
b. autosomal recessive
c. X linked dominant
d. X linked recessive

18. Which of the follwing is not an action of bradykinin?
a. Bronchodilation
b. Vasodilation
c. Pain
d. Increase in vascular permeability

19. Ma r k e r f o r l a n g e r h a n ‘ s c e l l
histiocytosis is:
a. CD5
b. CD1a
c. CD22
d. CD30

20. A person who is heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia has increased resistance for:
a. Malaria
b. Filariasis
c. Dengue haemorrhagic fever
d. Thalassemia

21. A 26 years old woman has history of 4 first trimester abortions. Hysterosalpingography shows a thin uterine septum. Which of the following is the right management for her?
a. No active intervention
b. Hysteroscopic resection
c. Strassmann operation
d. Tompkins operation

22. Which of the following is the most common acquired heart disease lesion found in pregnancy ?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Mitral regurgitation
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Aortic regurgitation

23. Which of the following Tocolytic agent causes maternal respiratory depression?
a. Calcium channel blockers
b. Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors (indomethacin)
c. Magnesium sulphate
d. Isoxsuprine

24. The most common cause of post partum hemorrhage is:
a. Traumatic
b. Atonic uterus
c. Coagulopathy
d. Retained placenta

25. Which of the following is the most common type of anemia in Indian pregnant women ?
a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Iron deficiency anemia
c. Sickle cell anemia
d. Hemolytic anemia

26. During a menstrual cycle, when does Ovulation occur?
a. Immediately after LH surge
b. 12 hours after LH surge
c. 24 hours after LH surge
d. 36 hours after LH surge

27. Insulin requirements of pregnant diabetic women are greatest during:
a. The 1st half of pregnancy
b. The 2nd half of pregnancy
c. During lactation
d. The immediate postpartum period

28. Which of the following is the Karyotype of complete mole?
a. 46, XX
b. 46, XY
c. 47, XXY
d. 47, XYY

29. Which of the following is the Obstetric cause of DIC?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Anemia
d. Epilepsy

30. Which of the following is characteristically associated with Oligohydroamnios ?
a. Rhisoimmunization
b. Renal agenesis
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Hypothyroidism