Vidyapeeth Talent Search Examination Class XII Question Paper : vidyapeethacademy.com
Name of the Organisation : Vidyapeeth Academy
Name of the Paper : Vidyapeeth Talent Search Examination
Class : XII
Document Type : Sample Paper Question / Answer
Website : https://vidyapeethacademy.com/
Vidyapeeth Talent Search Examination Class XII Question Paper
Time : 3 :00 hours.
Maximum Marks : 360
Related / Similar Question Paper :
Vidyapeeth Talent Search Examination Class XI Question Paper
Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particular carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having total 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination room/hall.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in one page at the end of the booklet.
10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/ Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. The CODE for this Booklet 0. Make sure that the CODE printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
12. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
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Answer Key :
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Part – I
Physics
Q.1 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts. Two parts of masses 1 kg and 2 kg go off at right angles to each other with velocity of 12 m / s and velocity of 8 m / s respectively. If the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 m/s, its mass would be :
(A) 7 kg
(B) 17 kg
(C) 3 kg
(D) 5 kg
Q.2 In a cylindrical water tank there are two small holes of radius R and 2R respectively at a depth h1 and h2 from the upper level of water. If tank is at rest on smooth horizontal surface than the ratio of h1 and h2 : (Assume that height of liquid level is kept constant)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Q.3 Assume that magnetic field of earth is similar to magnetic field of a magnetic bar. If angle of dip at Delhi and Chennai are ?1 are ?2 respectively then :
(A) 1 > 2
(B) 1 < 2
(C) 1 > 2
(D) 1 < 2
Q.4 A particle is projected with initial speed 10 m/s at an angle of 53o with horizontal. Then the time after which its speed becomes half of the initial speed.
(A) 1 sec
(B)4 sec/5
(C) 8 sec/5
(D) Never
Q.5 Consider a spherical drop of radius R. Surface tension of the liquid is S. Force of surface tension on shaded sub hemisphere due to remaining drop is S R 2? The value of angle ? (angle subtended by the sub hemisphere at centre of drop) is :
(A) 60o
(B) 120o
(C) 30o
(D) 90o
Q.6 Consider a system of two blocks as shown in the figure. The accelerations of both the blocks (A and B) respectively are
(A) 0 ; 0
(B) 0 ; 1 m/ s2
(C) 1 m/ s2 ; 0
(D) 1; 1
Q.7 If on increasing temperature of the systme shown, interface does not displace, thermal coefficient of linear expansion of rod-2 is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 20
(D) 3
Q.8 In the system shown, the mass m ? 2kg oscillates in a circular arc of amplitude 60o , the minimum value of coefficient of friction between mass ? 8 kg and surface of table to avoid slipping is :
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.50
(C) 0.40
(D) 0.30
Q.9 For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of inputs A, B, C are as follows A ? B ? C ? 0 and A ? B ? 1, C ? 0 then the logic states of output D are
(A) 0, 0
(B) 0, 1
(C) 1, 0
(D) 1, 1
Q.10 If the mass of proton ? 1.008 a.m.u. and mass of neutron ? 1.009 a.m.u. then binding energy per nucleon for 9 4 Be (mass ? 9.012 amu ) would be
(A) 0.065 MeV
(B) 60.44 MeV
(C) 67.2 MeV
(D) 6.72 MeV
Part – II :
Chemistry
Q.31 A sample of 3 gram (92% pure) of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue and gaseous products Find the volume of evolved gases at STP.
(A) 112 mL
(B) 22 mL
(C) 336 mL
(D) 33.6 mL
Q.32 The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, 1,4-cyclohexadiene and H2 are respectively ?3920, ? 3680 and ?241KJ mol?1 . The heat of hydrogenation of 1, 4-cyclohexadiene is :
(A) ?121KJ/mol
(B) ?242 KJ/mol
(C) 42 KJ/mol
(D) 242 KJ/mol
Q.33 Find the freezing point of a solution when 5 mol of K? is mixed with 1 mol of HgCl2 in 3500 gram of H2O. Kf of 2 H O 1.86 K m ? . (K? ? HgCl2 ???K2Hgl4 ? KCl)
(A) 28.7oC
(B) 41.45oC
(C) 35.07oC
(D) 4.78oC
Q.34 For the following gaseous equilibrium w, x, y and z at 300 K, the increasing order of P C K K is
(A) w = x = y = z
(B) z = x < w > y
(C) y < w < x > z
(D) z > x = w < y
Q.35 The slag produced during formation of wrought iron from its ore is/are :
(A) CaSiO3 & MnAsO3
(B) CaSiO3
(C) MnSiO3
(D) CaSiO3 & MnSiO3
Q.36 Bleaching powder is a mixture of :
(A) Ca(OCl)2
(B) Ca(OCl)2 Ca(OH)2
(C) CaCl2 2H2O
(D) Ca(OCl)2 CaCl2 Ca(OH)2 2H2O
Q.38 Correct statement about helmoholtz electrical double layer is :
(I) It is a combination of two layer of similar charges around colloidal sol.
(II) It is a combination of two layers of opposite charges around the colloidal sol.
(III) In it 1st layer of ions is diffused while 2nd layer of ions is fixed.
(IV) The potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer is called zeta potential.
(A) II & IV
(B) I & III
(C) III & IV
(D) I & IV
Q.39 Which of the following statement is/are correct ?
(A) Metal carbonyls possess both and character.
(B) Synergic bonding is present in metal carbonyls.
(C) M? C ? bond in metal carbonyls is formed by the donation of pair of e? from a filled d-orbital of metal to vacant antibonding orbital () in CO.
(D) All of these
Q.40 In FCC structure what is the total number of voids in 0.6 mol of compound ? 23 {NA ? 6 ? 10 /mol}
(A) 6.00 < 1023
(B) 1.08 < 1024
(C) 1.08 > 1023
(D) 7.2 > 1024
Q.41 If the e is transferred from A to B forming A? & B? . The above process is possible when : [? ? Ionisation enthalpy, E ? Magnitude of electron gain enthalpy]
(A) (EB B ) (A EA )
(B) (?A EB ) (?B ? EA )
(C) (?B EB ) (?A ? EA )
(D) None of these
Q.42 (I) In a cyclotimetaphosphoric acid molecule 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds are present.
(II) PH3 is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.
(III) Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to presence of two P < H bonds.
(IV) SO2 acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.
(V) SO2 can be prepared by the reaction of dilute H2SO4 with metal sulphide. Correct statements are :
(A) I, II & III
(B) I, II, III & IV
(C) I, II, III, IV & V
(D) II, III & V
Q.43 In the decompositionof Ammonia it was found that at 50 torr pressure t1/ 2 was 3.64 hour while at 100 torr t1/ 2 was 1.82 hours. Then order of reaction would be :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
Q.44 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT ?
(A) C60 contains twenty-six membered rings and twelve-five membered rings.
(B) Fullerenes are cage-like molecules.
(C) Graphite is thermodynmically most stable allotrope of carbon.
(D) None opf these
Q.45 A buffer solution cannot be prepared by mixing solutions of :
(A) Sodium chloride and Sodium hydroxide
(B) Ammonium hydroxide and Ammonium chloride.
(C) Formic acid and Sodium format.
(D) Boric acid and borax.
Part – III :
Mathematics
1. A relation R on the set of complex numbers is defined by z1Rz2 ? 1 2 1 2z z z z ? ? is real, then R is an
(A) equivalence relation
(B) only reflexive
(C) only transitive
(D) only symmetric
2. Let p : 7 is not greater than 4 and q : Paris is in France be two statements. Then ~ (p ? q) is the statement
(A) 7 greater than 4 or Paris is not in France
(B) 7 is not greater than 4 and paris is not in France
(C) 7 is greater than 4 and Paris is in France
(D) 7 is greater than 4 and Paris is not in France
3. Bag I contains 3 red and 4 black balls while another bag II contains 5 red and 6 black balls. One ball is drawn at random from one of the bags and it is found to be black. The probability that it was drawn from bag II is
(A) 7/43
(B) 13/43
(C) 21/43
(D) 1/2
3. Equation of the circle touching the line x + y – 4 at (1, 3) and intersecting the circle x2 + y2 + 4 orthoconally is
(A) x2 + y2 – x – 2y – 15 = 0
(B) 2×2 – 2y2 + x – 9y – 8 = 0
(C) 2×2 + 2y2 – x – y + 22 = 0
(D) x2 + y2 + x – y – 6 = 0
4. For the function f(x) 4 x3 8×2 16x 5, x 2 3 is a point of
(A) local maxima
(B) local minima
(C) point of inflexion
(D) decreasing
5. If a, b, c,d and p are different real number such that (a2 + b2 + c2 )p2 – 2 (ab + bc + cd)p = (b2 + c2 + d2 ) > 0 , then a, b, c and d are in
(A) A.P.
(B) G.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) A.G.P.