Genesis Classes Talent Search Exam Class XI Question Paper : genesisclasses.in

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Exam : Talent Search Exam
Document Type : Question Paper
Class : XI Std
Year : 2017
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Genesis Classes Talent Search Exam Question Paper

Sample Question Paper of Genesis Classes Talent Search Exam 2018 Class XI Question Paper is now available in the official website of Genesis Classes.

Related : Genesis Classes Talent Search Exam Class X Sample Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/29725.html

Instructions

A. General :
1. This booklet is your question paper containing 90 questions. The booklet has 8 pages.
2. The question paper contains blank space on back for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
3. It is mandatory to use Blue or Black Ball Point Pen to darken to appropriate circle in the answer sheet.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Roll Number in the space provided.

6. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No, Test code and Book Code have been filled and marked correctly. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator.

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Model Questions

Test Code :
Duration : 2 Hours
Max. Marks : 360
Part-I :

Chemistry

1. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition represents the emission of a photon with the maximum energy?
(A) III
(B) IV
(C) I
(D) II

2. Which one among the following represents schematically the radial probability function (RPF) 4?r2R2 (r) for a 2p orbital?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

3. The time period for revolution of Bohr electron in an orbit of ground state (n1) is T1 of time period for revolution of electron in higher orbit (n2) is T2. Which values of n1 and n2 are not correct if 8 ?
(A) n1 = 1, n2 = 2
(B) n1 = 2, n2 = 4
(C) n1 = 2, n2 = 3
(D) n1 = 3, n2 = 6

4. The geometry of a complex species can be understood from the knowledge of type of hybridisation of orbitals of central atom. The hybridisation of orbitals of central atom in [B(OH)4]– and the geometry of the complex are respectively:
(A) sp3, tetrahedral
(B) sp3, square planar
(C) sp3d2, octahedral
(D) dsp2, square planar

5. Hydrogen bonding does not play a central role in the following phenomena:
(A) Ice floats in water
(B) Higher Lewis basicity of primary amines than tertiary amines in aqueous solution
(C) Formic acid is more acidic than acetic acid
(D) Dimerisation of acetic acid in benzene

6. Assuming 2s–2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the following is:
(A) Be2
(B) B2
(C) C2
(D) N2

7. Match the following and select the correct option given below:
List-A List-B List-C
I. PCl5 (a) sp3d (P) Linear
II. BeCl2 (b) sp (Q) Trigonal bipyramid
III. NH3 (c) sp3 (R) Pyramidal
IV. XeF4 (d) sp3d2 (S) Square planar
V. XeF6 (e) sp3d3 (T) Pentagonal pyramid
(A) I – a – Q, II – b – P, III – c – R, IV – d – S, V – e – T
(B) I – a – P, II – b – Q, III – c – R, IV – d – S, V – e – T
(C) I – a – S, II – b – Q, III – c – R, IV – d – P, V – e – T
(D) I – a – R, II – b – T, III – c – Q, IV – d – P, V – e – S

8. 9. If m1, m2 are masses of an ideal gas, then which of the graph represents m2 > m1: I. II. III. IV.
(A) I, II only
(B) I, III only
(C) I, IV only
(D) I, II, III, IV

11. V versus T curves at constant pressure P1 and P2 for an ideal gas are shown in the fig. Which is correct?
(A) P1 > P2
(B) P1 < P2
(C) P1 = P2
(D) All of the these

12. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. If rms speed of gas at 120 K is u, then at 480 K, it becomes:
(A) u
(B) 2u
(C) u/2
(D) u/4

13. Which process is isothermal and adiabatic both?
(A) Free expansion of ideal gas
(B) Work done by gas at constant temperature
(C) Work done on gas at constant pressure
(D) Cyclic process

14. On the basis of thermochemical equations (i), (ii) and (iii), find out which of the algebric relationships given in options (A) to (D) is correct.
(i) C(graphite) + O2(g) ??? CO2(g); ?rH = x kJ mol–1
(ii) C(graphite) + 2 1 O2(g) ??? CO(g); ?rH = y kJ mol–1
(iii) CO(g) + 2 1 O2(g) ??? CO2(g); ?rH = z kJ mol–1
(A) z = x + y
(B) x = y – z
(C) x = y + z
(D) y = 2z – x

Paragraph Based Questions (17 to 20)
Chemical reactions are usually exothermic or endothermic. A balanced thermochemical equation involving physical states of reactants and products expresses the chemical changes as well as heat of reaction. Heat varies with physical state of reactants and products, conditions of constant pressure or volume and temperature. Heats of combustion and heat of neutralization, heat of condensation are always exothermic. Standard heat enthalpy of a compound is its heat of formation at 1 atm P and 25oC.
17. The heat energy released during neutralization of 1 equivalent of HF with 1 equivalent of NaOH and with 1 equivalent of CH3COOH and 1 equivalent of NaOH are respectively:
(A) –16.4 kcal, –12.0 kcal
(B) –12.0 kcal, –10 kcal
(C) –13.7 kcal in both
(D) –12.0 kcal, –16.4 kcal

18. In which case of mixing a strong acid and a base each of 1 N concentration, temperature rise is highest?
(A) 20 mL acid + 30 mL alkali
(B) 10 mL acid + 40 mL alkali
(C) 25 mL acid + 25 mL alkali
(D) 30 mL acid + 20 mL alkali

19. Heat of combustion of CH4, C2H4, C2H2 and C2H6 are –890, –1411, –1300 and –1561 kJ mol–1. The best fuel is:
(A) CH4
(B) C2H4
(C) C2H6
(D) C2H2

20. The enthalpy of which form of carbon has been supposed to be zero at 25oC and 1 atm?
(A) Graphite
(B) Diamond
(C) Coke
(D) Charcol

Physics

26. Which of the following statements is correct about conversion of units, for example 1m = 100 cm :
(A) Conversion of units have identical dimensions on each side of the equal sign but not the same units
(B) Conversion of units have different dimensions on each side of the equal sign but have same unit
(C) If a larger unit is used then numerical value of physical quantity is large
(D) Due to conversion of units physical quantity to be measured will change

28. A box is kept over a rough plank placed on the incline of a hill. The box remains at rest with respect to the plank as the plank is pulled up the hill with an increasing speed. The box is not fastened with the plank. What force is responsible for the increase in speed of the box?
(A) The force of kinetic friction of the plank on the box
(B) The force of static friction of the plank on the box
(C) The normal force of the plank on the box
(D) The gravitational force acting on the box

29. In the figure shown , the friction coefficient between the block of mass 1 kg and the plank of mass 2 kg is 0.4 while that between the plank and floor is 0.1. A constant force ‘F’ starts acting horizontally on the upper 1 kg block. The acceleration of plank if F = 10 N is
(A) 2.5 m/s2
(B) 3.833 m/s2
(C) 0.5 m/s2
(D) 1.0 m/s2

30. Jai is standing on the top of a building of height 25 m he wants to throw his gun to Veeru who stands on top of another building of height 20 m at distance 15 m from first building. For which horizontal speed of projection, it is possible :
(A) 5 ms–1
(B) 10 ms–1
(C) 15 ms–1
(D) 20 ms–1

Paragraph Based Questions (31 to 33)
Ram has just learnt driving and he is driving on a wet straight road (µS = 0.1, µk = 0.05) with a speed of 108 km/ hr. He sees his friend Shyam ahead travelling at a constant speed of 36km/hr in the same direction. His horn fails, he is at a distance of 102 m from Shyam. He applies brakes just hard enough to prevent slipping, yet providing for maximum deceleration.
31. What is his speed at the time of hitting Shyam.
(A) 24 m/s
(B) 21 m/s
(C) 18 m/s
(D) 26 m/s

32. If horn had worked and Shyam started accelerating
(A) Accident could have been avoided only if Shyam accelerated at maximum possible rate too
(B) Accident could not have been avoided
(C) Accident could have been avoided even if Shyam did not accelerate at maximum possible rate
(D) Accident could have been avoided even if Shyam did not accelerate at all, but moved at same speed as before

33. If instead of braking Ram decides to take a turn, what is the minium possible radius of the turn?
(A) 400 m
(B) 225 m
(C) 900 m
(D) 625 m

34. Take a stack of nine identical books and hold them horizontally by pressing them together with your hands (figure). Then decrease the pressure slowly until the books are just about to start falling down. Which book(s) will start to slide first ? Assume that friction coefficient between books is greater than that between books and hands.
(A) 5
(B) 4,5 and 6 together
(C) 2,3,4,5,6,7,8 together
(D) all 9 books slide together

35. A block of mass m is placed in contact with one end of a smooth tube of mass M (see figure). A horizontal force F acts on the tube in each case (i) and (ii). Then mark incorrect option:
(A) 1/9
(B) 1/3
(C)1
(D) 3

Reasoning

51. Leela, Neela and Sheela are asked to do a piece of work. The three girls divide the work equally amongst themselves and start working at the same time. Leela completes her work in 4 hours and then helps Neela to complete her work in another one hour. Then Neela and Leela both help Sheela to complete her work in another one hour. If all the three girls work with Sheela’s efficiency, in how much more time will they complete the work?
(A) 8 hours
(B) 8.33 hours
(C) 4 hours
(D) 10 hours

52. A milkman has two cans A and B of 18 litres each. Can A contains 12 litres of milk and 6 litres of water, can B contains 7 litres of milk and 5 litres of water. The milkman delivers milk on his bicyle. He always carries the cans on the bicycle in such a way that they have equal volumes of mixture in them. If not, he pours mixture from the can containing a larger volume into the can containing a smaller volume. He rides his bicycle to a building and distributes 12 litres of mixture from can A . Then he rides to the second building after adjusting volumes and distributes 4.5 litres of mixture from can A again. Till now the milkman has sold_________litres of pure milk
(A) 8.25
(B) 10.8
(C) 12.75
(D) 11.5

53. All the chapters of a book have an equal number of sections such that the number of chapters and the number of sections in each chapter differ by 10. If Ram reads four sections per day he can finish reading the book on the 14th day. If the reads 2 sections per day. he can finish reading the book on the 28th day and if he reads 3 sections per day. he can finish reading the book on the 19th day. If Ram reads 3 sections per day, and no two sections of two different chapters on the same day, then find the minimum number of days he requires to finish reading the book.
(A) 19
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 20

54. Tom left his house for Pat’s house and, after an hour, met Jerry who wa also going to Pat’s house. None of them stopped on the way. Tom reached Pat’s house 4 hours after he started and stayed there for 2 hours. On his way back, Tom again met Jerry who was still going towards Pat’s house. If the ratio of Tom’s and Jerry’s speed is 7 : 2, how many hours after tom left home did he meet Jerry for the second time?
(A) 3 19 hours
(B) 3 11 hours
(C) 7 44 hours
(D) 9 65 hours

Directions for Q.No. 55
Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
(a) Seeta, Rajinder and Surinder are children of Mr. and Mrs. Maudgil.
(b) Renu, Raja and Sunil are children of Mr. and Mrs. Bhaskar.
(c) Sunil and Seeta are married and Ashok and Sanjay are their children.
(d) Geeta and Rakesh are children of Mr. and Mrs. Jain.
(e) Geeta is married to Surinder and has three children named Rita, Sonu and Raju.

55. How is Rajinder related to Raju?
(A) Brother
(B) Uncle
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Cousin

Directions for Q. No. 56 to 60
Dubey and Yadva are gamblers Both of them gamble in a group of players for a week fromMonday to Saturday. Each player bets Rs. 10 in a game and the winner gets all the money at the end of the game. There are 8 players on Monday. The number of players either increases or decreases by 2 everyday. There are 10 players on Saturday.
* Dubey wins only when the number of players decreases over the previous day.
* Yadav wins only when the number of payers increases for two or more consecutive days. e.g., if the number of people on Tuesday is 10 and on Wednesday is 12, then yadav wins on Wednesday. Again if the number of people on Thursday become 14, he wins on Thursday also and so on. Dubey and Yadav both start gambling on Monday with the same amount in hand and both of them lose on Monday.

56. Yadav has exactly Rs. 60 less than Dubey at the end of the week. Find the number of players on Tuesday.
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10

57. If Yadav loses some amount at the end of the week. What could be the maximum prize amount on any day in that week?
(A) Rs. 70
(B) Rs. 90
(C) Rs. 110
(D) Rs. 70 or Rs. 90

58. If there were 4 players on Wednesday, what was the difference in Dubey’s and Yadav’s winnings at the end of the week?
(A) Rs. 70
(B) Rs. 40
(C) Rs. 60
(D) Rs. 80

59. What is the maximum amount that Yadav and Dubey together could won at the end of the week?
(A) Rs 420
(B) Rs. 360
(C) Rs. 200
(D) Rs. 160

60. Yadav wins on two consecutive days. Then which of the following statements cannot be true?
(A) Yadav has more cash than Dubey at the and of the week
(B) The maximum amount that yadav wins on is Rs. 130
(C) The difference in their winnings at the end of theweek is Rs. 100.
(D) There are 12 players on Friday