MKC Talent Hunt Scholarship Exam Class X Previous Question Paper 2018 : mkctalenthunt.in

Organisation : MKC Talent Hunt
Exam : MKC Talent Hunt Scholarship Exam 2019
Document Type : Previous Year Question Papers
Class : X Std
Year : 2018
Website : https://majorkalshiclasses.com/

MKC Talent Hunt Scholarship Exam Previous Question Paper

Sample Question Paper of MKC Talent Hunt Scholarship Exam 2019 Class X Standard Question Paper is now available in the official website of MKC Talent Hunt

Related / Similar Question Paper :
MKC Talent Hunt Sample Paper

Instructions

1. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet

2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.

3. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Part I – Mathematics, Science and Part II – General Awareness, English. Each item comprises four responses (answers)
4. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
5. Each item carry four (4) marks.

Download Question Paper :
https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/mkcCLASS10.pdf

6. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.

7. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.

8. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.

Model Questions

Time Allowed : Two Hours
Maximum Marks : 400

Part – I :

Mathematics

1. If sum of n terms of an A.P. is 3n2 + 5n and Tm = 164, then:
(a) m = 26
(b) m = 27
(c) m = 28
(d) none of these

2. The number of terms of the series 54, 51, 48 ….. so that their sum is 513:
(a) 18, 19
(b) 16, 22
(c) 25, 36
(d) none of these

3. An army contingent of 616 members is to march behind an army bond of 32 members in a parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. The maximum number of columns in which they can march is:
(a) 16
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 4

4. If ?, ? are the zeroes of Quadratic Polynomial x2 – 4x – 12, then the value of ?3? ? ??3 is:
(a) 480
(b) –480
(c) 202
(d) 408

5. If the sum of the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then which one of the following relations is correct?
(a) ab2 + bc2 = 2a2c
(b) ac2 + bc2 = 2b2a
(c) ab2 + bc2 = 2a2c
(d) a2 + b2 + c2 = 1

6. If abc are the zeroes of p(x) = x3 – 6×2 + 11x – 6 then the value of (a2 b2 c2 ) is:
(a) 14
(b) 36
(c) 22
(d) none of these

7. ABC is a triangle in which D is the midpoint of BC and E is the midpoint of AD. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The area of triangle ABC is equal to four times the area of triangle BED.
2. The area of triangle ADC is twice the area of triangle BED.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. In the given figure, ACB ~ ?APQ. If BC = 8 cm, PQ = 4 cm, BA = 6.5 cm, AP = 2.8 cm, then:
(a) AC = 5.6 cm, AQ = 3.25 cm
(b) AC = 6.5 cm, AQ = 2.56 cm
(c) AC = 6.5 cm, AQ = 3.25 cm
(d) none of these

9. In the given figure, M is the mid point of the side CD of the parallelogram ABCD. What is ON : OB?
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 5 : 2

10. ABC is a triangle right angled at C as shown in the figure below. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) AQ2 + AB2 = BP2 + PQ2
(b) AQ2 + PQ2 = AB2 + BP2
(c) AQ2 + BP2 = AB2 + PQ2
(d) AQ2 + AP2 = BK2 + KQ2

Science

26. Two wires connected in parallel have net resistance 2? . When one wire is removed resistance becomes 3?. Resistance of removed wire is:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8

27. An electric bulb rated as 250 volt 100 watt is used at 200 volt supply. Power of bulb reduced to:
(a) 52 watt
(b) 32 watt
(c) 64 watt
(d) 2 watt

28. Source of huge amount of energy in stars is:
(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Chain reaction
(d) Burning of fossil fuels

29. An electron is going due east in a magnetic field, which is vertically downward. In which direction the electron will deflect:
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West

30. Consider the following statements:
Statement (I): Magnetic unipole is not possible Statement
(II): Magnetic field lines are closed curve.
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the not correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

31. A mirror makes real image of same size. The mirror is
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Concave mirror
(d) None of these

32. A man uses a lens of power –2D. His near and far points are:
(a) 25 cm and 50 cm
(b) 50 cm and 25 cm
(c) 25 cm and Infinite
(d) 50 cm and Infinite

33. A convex lens is dipped in water. Its focal length will:
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) will remain same
(d) its nature will change

34. A wire is stretched so that its radius becomes half. Its new resistance will be:
(a) half
(b) double
(c) one fourth
(d) four times

35. A bar magnet is suspended freely. Its north pole will indicate:
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West

36. What is the number of neutrons in 7 g of 6C14?
(a) 8?6.02?1023
(b) 7?6.02?1023
(c) 6?6.02?1023
(d) 4?6.02?1023

37. Which one of the following does not define a covalent bond?
(a) a shared pair of electrons
(b) an overlap of half-filled atoms or hybrid orbitals
(c) increased electron density in the region between atoms of two non-metals
(d) electrostatic attraction between species in which one or more electrons have been transferred

PART – II :

General Awareness

51. What was the estimated population of Mohanjodaro?
(a) 15,000-30,000
(b) 35,000-41,000
(c) 50,000-70,000
(d) 70,000-90,000

52. From which of the following veda, the proverb ‘Asto ma sad gamaya’ derived?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Samveda
(d) Atharvaveda

53. Who was the Governor General during the time of 1857 Revolt?
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Bentinck
(c) Lord Canning
(d) Lord Lytton

54. On which year ‘Quit India Movement’ was started?
(a) 1940
(b) 1942
(c) 1944
(d) 1946

55. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty of the citizen of India?
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(d) To practice family planing and to control population

56. Which of the following are not correctly matched?
List-I List-II
(Title) (National Symbol)
1. National Tree – Indian Banyan
2. National Aquatic Animal – River Dolphin
3. National Heritage Animal – Indian Elephant
4. National Reptile – Indian Python
5. National Song – Jana Gana Mana
Choose the correct answer using the code give below?
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 2 and 4
(c) Only 4 and 5
(d) Only 3 and 5

57. The ‘President’s Rule’ in a state means that the state is ruled by:
(a) the President directly
(b) a caretaker government
(c) the chief minister nominated by the President
(d) Governor of the State

58. A present group of nations known as G-8 started first as G-7. Which one among the following nation was not the part of this group initially?
(a) Canada
(b) Italy
(c) Japan
(d) Russia

59. Consider the following figure related with a volcano. The point ‘X’ marked is known as:
(a) Cone
(b) Crater
(c) Caldera
(d) Vent

60. Near which scenic glacier is the Amarnath Cave situated?
(a) Kolahoi
(b) Siachen
(c) Nunkun
(d) Zaskar

61. The boundary of which Indian state coincides with Nepal, Bhutan and China?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) West Bengal
(d) Sikkim

62. A person wants to visit the national parks of Ranthambhor, Gir and Bandipur located in three different states of India. To which one of the following states he need not go in this connection?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat

English

Spotting Errors :
Directions: Each item in this section has a sentence which is divided into parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a), (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).
76. My friend always prefers (a) (b) reading short stories (c) than voluminous novels. No error (d)
77. (a) The children were (b) playing with a ball and run around when the accident occuured. (c) No error (d)
78.(a) Neither of the contestants was (b) in proper physical condition (c) to do his best work . No error (d)
79. We are fortunate in (a) being able to visit Puri because (b) there is many who cannot go there (c) No error (d)
80. Javed had not forgotten (a) the incident and could (b) clear remember all the details. (c) No error (d)

Synonyms :
Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with a CAPITAL word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the capital word.
85. It was Pranil’s PRACTICE to get up early and go for a walk before breakfast.
(a) convention
(b) habit
(c) fashion
(d) rule

86. Sita asked Laxmi not to MEDDLE in her affairs.
(a) interfere
(b) cross
(c) impose
(d) intercede

87. We must ERADICATE corruption.
(a) control
(b) condemn
(c) uproot
(d) minimise

88. You must give sufficient water and manure for seeds to GERMINATE.
(a) produce
(b) sprout
(c) breed
(d) terminate

Fill In The Blanks :
Directions: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for he blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.
93. The city was plunged ________ darkness due to a sudden power failure.
(a) at
(b) through
(c) to
(d) into

94. Human beings wish to ________ the unknown.
(a) triumph
(b) travel
(c) encircle
(d) conquer

95. He died ________ martyr in the cause of independence.
(a) though
(b) a
(c) for
(d) since