Allen’s Talent Encouragement Exam Class XI Sample Paper 2018 : tallentex.com

Organisation : ALLEN Career Institute – TALLENTEX
Exam : Allen’s Talent Encouragement Exam 2018
Document Type :  Past Year/Sample Paper
Class : XI Std
Paper Code: W & A
Website : https://www.tallentex.com/sample-papers.asp

Allen’s Talent Encouragement Exam Sample Paper

Sample Question Paper of Allen’s Talent Encouragement Exam 2018 Class XI Standard Paper – I & Paper II Question Paper is now available in the official website of ALLEN Career Institute – TALLENTEX COORDINATION CELL.

Related / Similar Question Paper :
Allen’s TALLENTEX Class V Sample Paper 2018

Download Question Paper :
Paper I :  https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/11thpI.pdf
Paper II : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/11thpII.pdf

Model Questions

Duration : 2 Hrs
Maximum Marks : 320

Paper – I

Paper Code : W
Section-A – Mental Ability :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. If ‘P$Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’; ‘P # Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’; ‘P * Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’, then how is D related to N in N # A $ B * D?
(1) Nephew
(2) Grandson
(3) Granddaughter
(4) Either (2) or (3)

2. A – B means B is the child of A, A+B means B is the mother of A, A × B means A is the father of B, A ÷ B means B is the wife of A. What is the relation of Ashu with Santosh in the given equation Santosh – Dinesh × Ashu ÷ Meena + Reshu
(1) Grand son
(2) Grand daughter
(3) Cannot be determined
(4) None of these

3. One evening before sunset two friends Tapan and Sapan were talking to each other face to face. If Tapan’s shadow was exactly to his right side. Which direction was Sapan facing ?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) West
(4) East

4. If in a certain code language ‘HORSE’ is written as ‘JMTQG’, how would ‘POWER’ be coded in the same code ?
(1) Q P X F S
(2) N Q U G Q
(3) E M Z D S
(4) R M Y C T

5. In the given question three Statements I, II and III are given. You are required to find out which of the given statement (s) is/are sufficient to answer the question. Mark your answer accordingly. In which year was Tarun born?
I. Tarun is 6 yr older than Robin,
II. Robin’s brother was born in 1982.
III. Tarun’s brother is 2 yr younger than Robin’s brother who was 8 yr younger than him.
(1) I and III
(2) II and III
(3) All I, II and III
(4) I and II

Section-B – Physics :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. A car is going from one city to another city by travelling 75 km North, 60 2 km North-West and 60 km East. The minimum distance between the two cities is :
(1) 135 km
(2) 137 km
(3) 140 km
(4) 170 km

22. Block ‘ A ‘ is hanging from a vertical spring and is at rest. Block ‘ B ‘ strikes the block ‘A’ with velocity ‘ v ‘ and sticks to it. Then the value of ‘ v ‘ for which the spring just attains natural length is:
(1) 60mg2 k
(2) 6mg2 k
(3) 10mg2 k
(4) None of these

23. In a new system of units, unit of mass is 5 kg, unit of length is 2 m and unit of time is 10sec. Value of 5N in new system of units is
(1) 30
(2) 40
(3) 50
(4) 60

24. Block A of mass m is moving with speed V0 on a frictionless surface that ends in a rigid wall as shown in figure. Farther from the wall is a more massive block B of mass M = am (a > 1), initially at rest. The block A undergoes elastic collision with the block B and the wall. Condition on a for which the two blocks will undergo only one collision is :- wall
(1) a < 3
(2) a < 4
(3) a < 5
(4) a < 6

25. A constant power of 10 watt is applied to a body of mass 1 kg initially at rest. The speed of body after 5 sec is (Force is acted in same direction of motion)
(1) Zero
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

Section-C – Chemistry
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. The maximum speed of moving electron having its de-broglie wavelength in visible range is– (Given visible range 400 nm – 700 nm) (Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s)
(1) 1.1 × 103 m/s
(2) 1.8 × 104 m/s
(3) 1.1 × 104 m/s
(4) 1.8 × 103 m/s

42. Iron forms two oxides, in first oxide 56 gram of Iron is found to be combined with 16 gram oxygen and in second oxide 112 gram of Iron is found to be combined with 48 gram oxygen. This data satisfy the law of –
(1) Conservation of mass
(2) Reciprocal proportion
(3) Multiple proportions
(4) Combining volume

43. Give the correct order of initials True (T) or False (F) for following statements.
(I) Number of electrons having ‘l = 0’ is 10 in Pd.
(II) The value of Zeff for 3d electron of Cr & 3d electron of Mn is same as number of electrons in ‘d’ subshell of Cr & Mn are same.
(III) Spin multiplicity of Fe is equal to Ni2+.
(IV) Value of n for last electron of element having atomic number 57 is 0.4.
(1) T T T T
(2) F T T T
(3) T F T F
(4) F F F T

44. The element having highest percentage by weight in Fe2(SO4)3 is : (At.wt. Fe = 56, S = 32, O = 16)
(1) Fe
(2) S
(3) O
(4) cannot say

45. The ionic radius of Cr is minimum in which of the following compounds –
(1) CrF3
(2) CrCl3
(3) Cr2O3
(4) K2CrO4

Section-D – Biology :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Blood groups in human beings are due to presence of :
(1) Specific antigens in blood plasma.
(2) Specific antibodies on the surface of RBCs.
(3) Specific antibodies dissolved in blood plasma.
(4) Specific antigens on surface of Erythrocytes and their corresponding antibodies dissolved in blood plasma.

62. The most important feature of all living system is to–
(1) Produce gametes
(2) Replicate the genetic information
(3) Utilize oxygen to generate energy
(4) Utilize solar energy for metabolic activities

63. Find out all the proteins that make eukaryotic flagellum ?
(1) Tubulin, Nexin, Dynein and flagellin.
(2) Dynein, Tubulin and Nexin
(3) Nexin, Tubulin and Flagellin
(4) Actin, Myosin, Dynein, Nexin and Tubulin

64. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are sister cells. ‘A’ is enucleated and is the main conducting element for the transport of sucrose. ‘A’ and ‘B’ in Indigofera are
(1) Vessels and companion cells
(2) Sieve cells and albuminous cells
(3) Sieve tube members and companion cells
(4) Sieve tubes and albuminous cells

65. Which one of the following is an exalbuminous seed ?
(1) Wheat seed
(2) Maize seed
(3) Castor seed
(4) Pea seed

Paper – II

Paper Code : A
Section-A – Mental Ability :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A party consists of grandmother, father, mother, four sons and their wives and one son and two daughters of each of the sons. How many females are there in all?
(1) 14
(2) 16
(3) 18
(4) 24

2. Direction : Read the following information carefully to answer the question given below it :
(i) ‘A + B’ means that A is the father of B.
(ii) ‘A – B’ means that A is the wife of B.
(iii) ‘A × B’ means that A is the brother of B.
(iv) ‘A ¸ B’ means that A is the daughter of B.
If it is given P ¸ R + S + Q, which of the following is true ?
(1) P is the daughter of Q
(2) Q is the aunt of P
(3) P is the aunt of Q
(4) P is the mother of R

3. A man walks 30 m towards South. Then turning to his right he walks 30 m. Then turning to his left he walks 20 m. Again turning to his left he walks 30 m. How far is he from his starting position ?
(1) 30 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 80 m
(4) None of these

4. In a certain code if RAT = 75, CAT = 45, then MAT = ?
(1) 55
(2) 65
(3) 75
(4) 85

5. Direction : In the following question, three Statements I, II and III are given. You are required to find out which of the given statement (s) is/are sufficient to answer the question. Mark your answer accordingly.
On which day Suresh went to Chennai, if week starts on Monday?
(I) Suresh took leave on Wednesday.
(II) Suresh went to Chennai the next day of the day his mother came to his house.
(III) Suresh’s mother came to his house neither on Monday nor Friday.
(1) II and III
(2) I and II
(3) I and III
(4) Even I, II and III together are not sufficient

Section-B – Physics :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. The angular elevation of an enemy’s position on a hill of height h is q. What should be the minimum speed of the projectile in order to shell the enemy ?
(1) u = gh (cos ec q +1)
(2) u = gh sin q
(3) u = 2gh
(4) None of the above

23. If the adjacent sides of a parallelogram are ® ® A= 4ˆi + 2ˆj -3kˆ and B= 6kˆ , then the area of the parallelogram is:
(1) 12
(2) 5
(3) 125
(4) 6

27. A ball of mass m = 1 kg is hung vertically by a thread of length l = 1.50 metre. Upper end of the thread is attached to the ceiling of a trolley of mass M = 4 kg. Initially, trolley is stationary and it is free to move along horizontal rails without friction. A shell of mass m = 1 kg, moving horizontally with velocity v0 = 6 m/s, collides with the ball and gets stuck with it. As a result, thread starts to deflect towards right. The maximum inclination of thread with the vertical is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 30°
(2) 37°
(3) 45°
(4) 53°

28. A block of mass 5 kg is pulled vertically upwards with constant acceleration 5 ms–2. Upward pulling force is equal to–
(1) 25 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 75 N
(4) 125 N

Section-C – Chemistry :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. The approximate size of the nucleus of 64 28 Ni is :
(1) 3 fm
(2) 4 fm
(3) 5 fm
(4) 2 fm

42. 5 moles of A, 6 moles of Z and mixed with sufficient amount of C to produce final product F. How many maximum moles of ‘F’ can be produced as per the given sequence of reaction A +2Z ®B ; B + C ® Z + F
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

43. The energy of the electron in the second and the third Bohr’s orbits of the hydrogen atom is –5.42 × 10–12 erg and –2.41 × 10–12 erg respectively. Calculate the approximate wavelength of the emitted radiation when the electron drops from the third to the second orbit.
(1) 6582 Å
(2) 4552 Å
(3) 2858 Å
(4) 8285 Å

44. Which statement is not correct regarding a mole?
(1) A mole of 12C atoms contains 6.02 × 1023 atoms.
(2) A mole of O2 gas contains the same number of molecules as a mole of H2 gas.
(3) Exactly 12 g of carbon–12 is one mole of carbon–12.
(4) A mole of O2 gas has the same mass as a mole of N2 gas.

45. If a sudden jump between the values of second and third ionization energies of an element occurs,then it would be associated with which electronic configuration?
(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s1
(2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p4
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1

Section-D – Biology :
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Read the following tissue names and find out how many of them are product of differentiation (A), dedifferentiation (B) and redifferentiation (C). Cortex, phelloderm, secondary cortex, secondary phloem, primary medullary rays, interfacicular cambium, phellum, endodermis.
(1) A = 3, B = 1, C = 4
(2) A = 2, B = 1, C = 5
(3) A = 3, B = 3, C = 2
(4) A = 4, B = 3, C = 1

62. The given figure represents head region of cockroach, in which of the options all the four parts A, B, C and D are labelled correctly?
(1) A–Labrum, B–Mandible, C–Maxilla, D–Labium
(2) A–Mandible, B–Maxilla, C–Labium, D–Labrum
(3) A–Maxilla, B–Mandible, C–Labium, D–Labrum D
(4) A–Labium, B–Maxilla, C–Labrum, D–Mandible

63. Animals of class mammalia have
(1) Seven cervical vertebrae
(2) Seven cervical nerves
(3) Single ventricular chamber
(4) fourteen cervical vertebrae

64. The cohesion of stamens is shown by which one of the following conditions ?
(1) Gynandrous
(2) Gynostegium
(3) Syngenesious
(4) Epipetalous

65. Following organisms belongs to how many order ?
Human, Leopard, Tiger, Solanum, Datura, Wheat, Mango, Housefly, Cat, Dog, Petunia
(1) Seven
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Five