delhilawacademy.com CLAT LL.M. Past Year Question Paper 2017 : Delhi Law Academy

Organisation : Delhi Law Academy
Exam : CLAT LL.M.
Subject : Law
Year : 2017
Document Type : Past Year Question Papers
Website : https://www.delhilawacademy.com/

Delhi Law Academy CLAT LL.M. Past Year Question Paper

Time : 2 hours
Total Marks : 200

Related : Delhi Law Academy CLAT Common Law Admission Test Model Question Paper 2017 : www.pdfquestion.in/25959.html

SECTION A :

Constitutional Law

1. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision given by the_____ shall be final:
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President
(d) Prime Minister.

2. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India dealing with the ‘Co-operative Societies’ was inserted by:
(a) The Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment) Act, 2009
(b) The Constitution (Ninety Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012
(c) The Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
(d) The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011.

3. Article 280 of the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Union Public Service Commission
(d) Comptroller and Auditor-General.

4. Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with the representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the House of the People?
(a) Article 331
(b) Article 332
(c) Article 333
(d) Article 330.

5. In State of Maharashtra v. Dr. Praful B. Desai, 2003 SC the Supreme Court of India held:
(a) Right to speedy trial is part and parcel of Right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution
(b) It is obligatory on the employer to compute the family pension and offer the same to the widow even without making a claim on her part
(c) Where lawyers boycott or are on strike it is the duty of the court to carry on with court proceedings
(d) Recording of evidence through Vedio- conferencing so long the accused and/or his pleader are present while recording is as per “procedure established by law” and hence valid.

6. In which of the following judgment, the scope of writ of Habeas Corpus was widened?
(a) D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1998 SC)
(b) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1983 SC)
(c) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration, (1978 SC)
(d) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (1987 SC).

7. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides for joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in certain cases?
(a) Article 107
(b) Article 110
(c) Article 109
(d) Article 108.

8. How many maximum members can represent the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 1.35
(b) 2.30
(c) 3.25
(d) 4.20.

9. Supreme Court of India issued directions to the Central Government to conclude the national survey on drug abuse within a period of six months and a national plan for curbing increase of use and abuse of substance in children within four months in:
(a) Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, (1984 SC)
(b) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (2017 SC)
(c) Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India, (2017 SC)
(d) Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1987 SC).

10. How many judges constituted the Bench in the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of India, (2016) 5 SCC 1 in which the Constitution (Ninety Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, was declared unconstitutional?
(a) Seven
(b) Five
(c) Nine
(d) Three.

41. The official language used in the Supreme Court of India shall be:
(a) Both English and Hindi
(b) Hindi
(c) Any local language
(d) English.

42. Under which article of the Constitution of India, there is a duty of the Chief Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for?
(a) 168
(b) 166
(c) 167
(d) 169.

43. In which case, the Supreme Court of India held that there is no justification for permitting only Brahmins to carry out the necessary rites and rituals as priests?
(a) Arum Roy v. Union of India, (2002 SC)
(b) Ismail Faruqui v. Union of India, (1994 SC)
(c) Bhuri Nath v. State of] & K, (1997 SC)
(d) N. Adithayan v. Travancore Devaswom Board, (2002 SC).

44. A person can become a Minister without being a member of either House of Parliament for a period of:
(a) one year consecutively
(b) nine consecutive months
(c) three consecutive months
(d) six consecutive months.

45. Under the Constitution of India freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to:
(a) public order and health
(b) public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III
(c) public order and morality
(d) public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III.

46. In which of the following articles of the Constitution of India the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is provided?
(a) Article 309
(b) Article 312
(c) Article 310
(d) Article 311.

47. Under which of the following articles of the Constitution of India, the Tribunals other than Administrative Tribunals can be created by the appropriate Legislature?
(a) Article 323
(b) Article 324
(c) Article 323A
(d) Article 323B.

48. Right to enforce which articles of the Constitution of India cannot be suspended during the emergency?
(a) Article 19 and 20
(b) Article 20 and 21
(c) Article 14, 19 and 21
(d) Article 21 and 22.

49. Which one of the following is not a ground mentioned in Article 19(2) of the Constitution of India on the basis of which reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression can be imposed?
(a) friendly relation with foreign states
(b) incitement to an offence
(c) public interest
(d) the Security of the State.

50. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that all prostitutes and sex workers also have a right to live with human dignity under Article 21
(a) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, (1996 SC)
(b) Budhadev Karmaskar v. State of W.B., (2011 SC)
(c) Sabia khan v. State of U.P., (2010 SC)
(d) Lata Singh v. State of U.P., (2006 SC).

Jurisprudence

1. Two main theories of legal right are:
(a) the Will Theory and the Interest Theory
(b) the Will Theory and the Concession Theory
(c) the Will Theory and the Realist Theory
(d) the Interest Theory and the Symbolist Theory.

2. ‘Who wrote the book ‘Elementiae Philosophial’
(a) Austin
(b) Hobbes
(c) Savigny
(d) Maine.

3. Who wrote the book ‘Das Rhect des Besitzes’?
(a) Puchta
(b) Maine
(c) Hegel
(d) Savigny.

4. According to whom, possession is protected because every act of violence is unlawful:
(a) Rousseau
(b) Holland
(c) Kelsen
(d) Savigny.

5. Who defined law as ‘the form of the guarantee of the conditions of life of society assured by State’s power of constraint’?
(a) Ihering
(b) Ehrlich
(c) Pound
(d) Duguit.

6. Who described ownership as ‘a right — indefinite in point of user — unrestricted in point of disposition — and unlimited in point of duration — over a determinate thing’?
(a) Renner
(b) Austin
(c) Ihering
(d) Salmond.

7. Rights which came into being after the violation of a right are:
(a) no rights
(b) sanctioning rights
(c) duties
(d) primary rights.

8. Who said that ‘the essence of legal right seems to me to be not legally guaranteed power by itself, nor legally protected interest by itself, but the legally guaranteed power to realize an interest’?
(a) Allen
(b) Salmond
(c) Hegel
(d) Paton.

9. Who said that protection to possession stands on the same grounds as protection against injuria?
(a) Duguit
(b) Holland
(c) Windscheid
(d) Austin.

10. In precedents, rules and principles are laid down by:
(a) predictive method
(b) constructive method
(c) inductive method
(d) deductive method.

11. Who wrote the book ‘De la Republique’?
(a) Machiavelli
(b) Bentham
(c) Bodin
(d) Hobbes.

12. Which school of thought opined that customs originate from common consciousness of the people?
(a) Sociological school
(b) Natural Law school
(c) Historical school
(d) Analytical school.

13. Pound defines law as:
(a) a social institution to satisfy social wants
(b) a positive morality
(c) the de psychologized command
(d) a social fact.

14. Who said that Law is ‘the highest reason implanted in nature’?
(a) Hart
(b) Cicero
(c) Salmond
(d) Maitland.

15. Who defined ownership as ‘a plenary control over an object’?
(a) Holland
(b) Ihering
(c) Salmond
(d) Savigny.

Contract, Torts , Criminal Law, International Law, IPR

1. A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place. The charge:
(a) must not set out the manner in which A cheated B.
(b) must set out the manner in which A cheated B.
(c) no charge is required to be framed in this case
(d) may or may not set out the manner in which A cheated B.

2. The statement that a lady has given birth to a child. It is a:
(a) defamatory statement
(b) defamatory statement if the lady is unmarried
(c) not a defamatory statement
(d) dependent on the intention of the maker of the statement.

3. Which of the following case led to the enactment of “The Compensatory A forestation Fund Act, 2016?
(a) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (2016)
(b) Centre for Environmental Law, World Wide Fund India v. Union of India, (2013)
(c) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India, (2002)
(d) Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India, (2012).

4. In 1980, the Central Government appointed a Committee to Review Environmental Legislation and recommend measures for ensuring environmental protection. The name of the Committee was:
(a) Khanna Committee
(b) Tiwari Committee
(c) Kamal Nath Committee
(d) M.C. Mehta Committee.

5. Under the Paris Agreement, 2015, the contributions that each individual country should make in order to achieve the worldwide goals are determined by all countries individually and called as:
(a) Nationally determined contributions
(b) Climate Fund
(c) Voluntary determined contribution
(d) Environmental Fund.

6. A, B and C jointly promise to pay D 3,000 rupees. D may compel:
(a) either A or B or C to pay him 3,000 rupees.
(b) either A or B to pay him 3,000 rupees.
(c) either B or C to pay him 3,000 rupees.
(d) all to pay him 3,000 rupees simultaneously.

7. When did India enact Indian Maritime Zone Act?
(a) 1976
(b) 1994
(c) 1982
(d) 1979.

8. Under which provision of Indian Penal Code the ‘Dowry death’ is defined?
(a) Section 304
(b) Section 304B
(c) Section 305
(d) Section 304A.

9. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development is based on_____ Sustainable Development Goals:
(a) 15
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 5.

10. The first case decided by the European Court of Human Rights was:
(a) Lawless v. Ireland
(b) Ireland v. United Kingdom
(c) Brogan v. United Kingdom
(d) Lengens v. Austria.

11. In which year U.N. Commission on Human Rights, which has been replaced by Human Rights Council, was established?
(a) 1945
(b) 2006
(c) 1946
(d) 2005.

12. In which case section 309 of Indian Penal Code was declared constitutional?
(a) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(b) Bachan Singh v. Union of India
(c) Ansari v. Union of India
(d) P. Rathinam v. Union of India

13. A finds B’s purse and gives it to him. B promises to give A Rs. 50.
(a) This is a valid contract
(b) This is void contract
(c) This is no contract at all
(d) This is a voidable contract.

14. The case of Bangalore Medical Trust v. B.S. Muddapa, 1991 SC related to:
(a) Medical negligence in the hospital
(b) Reservation of seats in medical colleges
(c) Throwing the hospital waste into the river
(d) Converting a public park into a nursing home.

15. ‘Pigeon-hole theory7 of tort was given by:
(a) Salmond
(b) Pullock
(c) Winfield
(d) Anson.