geee.in Galgotias Engineering Entrance Exam Chemistry Question Paper 2018 : University
Organization : Galgotias University
Exam : Galgotias Engineering Entrance Examination 2018
Document Type : Sample Question Paper
Subject : Chemistry
Website : http://geee.in/model-paper.asp
Download Model/Sample Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/25403-GEEEchemistry.pdf
GEEE Chemistry Question Paper
The University, which is based in Greater Noida, has a ‘students-first’ philosophy. It’s one of the reasons why Galgotias University is consistently ranked among India’s top universities.
Related : VISION40 IIT-JEE Main Exam Model Question Paper 2017 : www.pdfquestion.in/25398.html
Sample Question
1. pH of a substance is:
A) log [H+]
B)-log [H+]
C) log [H-]
D)-log [H-]
2. Which order has the identical unit of rate of reaction and rate constant?
A) Fractional Order Reaction
B) Zero Order Reaction
C) First Order Reaction
D) Second Order Reaction
3. Which of the following statement is correct?
A) (n-1)d subshell has lower energy than ns subshell
B) (n-1)d subshell has higher energy than ns subshell
C) (n+1)d subshell has lower energy than nf subshell
D) nf subshell has lesser energy than ns subshell
4. The specific conductance of an electrolyte is:
A) Increases with dilution
B) Decrease with dilution
C) Either may increase or decrease
D) No change
5. What happens to entropy in the evaporation of water?
A) It decreases
B) It increases
C) It does not change
D) Remains zero
6. Which is the correct option for sulphur solution?
A) Lyophilic Colloid
B) Lyophobic Colloid
C) Gel
D) Emulsion
7. In the reduction of dichromate by Fe(II), the number of electrons involved per chromium atom is:
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1
8. A real gas is expected to behave more or less ideally at:
A) Low temperature and low pressure
B) Low temperature and high pressure
C) High temperature and low pressure
D) High temperature and high pressure
9. Which of the following represents a multimolecular colloidal particles?
A) Sol of sulphur
B) Lipids
C) Carbohydrate
D) Proteins
10. Which one of the following molecule / ion shows regular tetrahedral structure?
A) SO2
B) so
C) XeF6
D) [Ni(CN)4]2-
11. Which of the following statements is correct for carbon monoxide?
A) A double bond between carbon and oxygen
B) 1ó, 1ð and 1 coordinate bond between carbon and oxygen
C) One lone pair of electrons only on oxygen atom
D) 1ó & 2ð bonds between carbon and oxygen.
12. Which of the following is the Alicyclic Compounds?
A) Aromatic Compounds
B) Aliphatic Cyclic Compounds
C) Heterocyclic Compounds
D) Aliphatic compound
13. Which among the following is the Baeyer’s reagent?
A) Alkaline permanganate solution
B) Acidified permanganate solution
C) Neutral permanganate solution
D) Aqueous bromine solution
14. Which of the following expressions gives the de Broglie relationship?
A) p = h/v
B) ? = h/mv
C) h = mv/?
D) ? = v/p
15. At 250C, the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1M solution of:
A) Glucose
B) K3[Fe(CN)6]
C) Ca(NO3)2
D) Al2(SO4)3
16. Which of the following shows a negative deviation from Raoult?s law?
A) Acetone ?Benzene
B) Acetone ?Ethanol
C) Acetone ?Chloroform
D) Benzene ?Methanol
17. Al3+ has lower ionic radius than Mg2+ ion because:
A) Al atom has less number of neutrons than Mg
B) Their electro negativities are different
C) Mg has a higher ionization potential than Al
D) Al3+ has a higher nuclear charge than Mg2+
18. Which of the following correctly represents Thermoplastics?
A) Intermolecular forces are strong
B) Intermolecular forces are weak
C) They cannot be remoulded into any shape
D) They have very high glass transition temperature
19. Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among alkali metals due to which of the following factors?
A) Ionisation energy
B) Electron affinity
C) Hydration energy
D) Lattice energy
20. Gallium doped with germanium is a:
A) n-type semiconductor
B) p-type semiconductor
C) p-n type semiconductor
D) p-n-p type semiconductor
21. The EAN of the complex [Co(NH3)6Cl3] is:
A) 33
B) 35
C) 36
D) 38
22. In K4[Fe(CN)6] complex. What is the hybridization of Fe?
A) d2sp2
B) d2sp3
C) dsp2
D) sp3
23. Which one is the correct IUPAC name of Iso butyl bromide?
A) 1-bromo butane
B) 2-bromo butane
C) 1-bromo-2-methyl propane
D) 2-bromo-2-mehtyl butane
24. What is the indication for the appearance of red colour in Victor Meyer’s test?
A) 1° Alcohol
B) 2° Alcohol
C) 3° Alcohol
D) Phenol
25. Which catalyst is used in the equation, C6H5CHO + CH3COCH3 ? C6H5CH = CHCOCH3?
A) NaOH
B) KMNO4
C) K2Cr2O7
D) LiAlH4
Chemistry Exam Syllabus
| Topic | Easy | Moderate | Difficult |
| Chemical Arithmetic & Atomic Structure | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Chemical Equilibrium | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Chemical Kinetics | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Solutions | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Chemical Thermodynamics | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Solid State & States of Matter | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Surface Chemistry | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Chemistry of Representative Elements | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Transition Elements Including Lanthanoides | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Nomenclature and Basic Concepts in The Organic Chemistry | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Hydrocarbons | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Organic Chemistry Based On Functional Group-I | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Organic Chemistry Based On Function Group-II | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Organic Chemistry Based On Functional Group-III | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Co-Ordination Chemistry and Organometallics | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Molecules of Life | 30% | 30% | 40% |
| Polymers | 30% | 30% | 40% |
Schedule of GEEE – 2018
** The duration of the entrance examination will be 90 minutes.
** Please refer for further details in galgotiasuniversity.edu.in
** Pattern of the Entrance Examination Question Paper: Questions will be of OBJECTIVE TYPE with Multiple Choice
** Three parts – Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
** All the questions will be mostly from the State Board of Higher Secondary Education and the CBSE syllabus only.
** Each part has 30 questions and each question carries one mark.
** No negative marks for wrong answers.
** The Question paper will be only in English.