GGTU Research Eligibility Test RET Botany Question Paper 2018 : Govind Guru Tribal University
Name of the University : Govind Guru Tribal University
Exam : Research Eligibility Test 2018
Subject : Paper-II – Botany
Document Type : Model Question Paper
Year : 2018
Website : https://www.ggtu.ac.in/
Download Model Question Paper :
Botany QP : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/25302-botany.pdf
Answer Key : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/25302-botanyans.pdf
GGTU RET Research Eligibility Test Botany Question Paper
No. of Pages in Booklet : 08
No. of Multiple Choice Objective Questions in Booklet : 50
Time : 60
Maximum Marks : 100
Related : Govind Guru Tribal University RET Research Eligibility Test Chemistry Question Paper 2018 : www.pdfquestion.in/25297.html
Instructions
1. Answer all the questions.
2. Every question is of two marks.
3. There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
4. At the commencement of examination, the Question Booklet will be given to you. In the first five minutes, you are requested to open the Booklet an compulsorily examine it as below: Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the Booklet with the information printed on the cover page.
** Faulty Booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct Booklet rom the invigilator within the period of five minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given.
5. Give one answer of each question in a separately provided OMR answer sheet.
6. Rough work is to be done on the back of printed papers.
7. There are four optional answer of each question which have written A, B, C, D in English and v] c] l] n in Hindi respectively. Candidate is required to darken the correct options of the answers of each question in the box givenagainst each question No. on the answer sheet. Use only blue/black ball point pen.
8. If you write your Roll No. or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the elevant entries, which may disclosed your indentity or use abusive language, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
** Carrying or use of copying material, talking with another candidate during examination isprohibited. Mobile phone or any electronic equipment is prohibited in the examination hall. If any of the prohibited material or any complaint is received against any candidate, necessary action as per rules will be taken against such candidate.
9. In case any of the candidate is found to copying or any unauthorised/prohibited material is found form his/her, anFIR shall be lodged in the Police against that candidate and action will be taken under Rule 3 of the Prevention of Unfair means Act, 1992. Such applicant can be prohibited from appearing in all examination in future.
10. The English version will be treated as standard in case of any ambiguity or printing mistake.
Sample Question
1. “The total amount of energy in the universe remains constant”, represents-
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the above
2. Which of the following is not energy carrier in a cell?
(A) ATP
(B) Creatine phosphate
(C) GTP
(D) Flavo proteins
3. Diameter of DNA is about-
(A) 24 A°
(B) 20 A°
(C) 34 A°
(D) 30 A°
4. Disulphide bonds are formed between-
(A) Cysteine residues that are close together
(B) Cystyne residues that are close together
(C) Proline residues that are close together
(D) Histidine residues that are close together
5. Who stated that cell is a basic unit of all plants?
(A) Swanson
(B) Schwann
(C) Virchow
(D) Schleiden
6. In eukaryotes which of the following is not found?
(A) Mesosome
(B) Nucleus
(C) Ribosome
(D) Plastid
7. Rod-shaped chromosome is called-
(A) Metacentric
(B) Telocentric
(C) Acrocentric
(D) Bacillus
8. Puffs (Balbiani rings) are associated with the synthesis of –
(A) Starch
(B) Lipids
(C) Polysaccharides
(D) MRNA rFkk Proteins
9. ‘One gene one enzyme’ concept was given by-
(A) Lederberg & Tatum
(B) Zinder and Lederberg
(C) Beadle & Tatum
(D) Kornberg & Tatum
10. Chain initiation codon is-
(A) UGA
(B) AUG
(C) GUG
(D) AUG & GUG
11. DNA generally acts as a template for the synthesis of-
(A) Only protein
(B) Only DNA
(C) Only RNA
(D) Both DNA & RNA
12. Transcription occurs in presence of-
(A) DNA polymerase I
(B) DNA polymerase II
(C) RNA polymerase
(D) DNA polymerase III
13. A Hormone or Ligand can be considered as-
(A) First messenger
(B) Second messenger
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these
14. Which property of p53 enables it to prevent the development of cancer?
(A) P 53 is a transcription factor that causes production of proteins that stimulate the cells cycle.
(B) P 53 prevents the replication of cells with damaged DNA
(C) P 53 prevents cells from triggering apoptosis
(D) P 53 stimulates synthesis of DNA repair enzyme that replace telomere sequence lost during cell division
15. Antibodies are produced by-
(A) Leucocytes
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Monocytes
(D) Spleen
16. Aflatoxins are produced by-
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Viruses
(D) Nematodes
17. How many nuclei are present in fully developed male gametophyte of flowering plant?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
18. Embryo sac is-
(A) Megaspore mother cell
(B) Female gametophyte
(C) Mega sporangium
(D) Microsporangium
19. Gloriosa superba is a good example of-
(A) Heterostyly
(B) Cleistogamy
(C) Self sterility
(D) Herkogamy
20. Non endospermic seeds are-
(A) Pea & castor
(B) Pea & Maize
(C) Maize & castor
(D) None of these
Answer Key
1 i
2 iv
3 ii
4 i
5 iv
6 i
7 ii
8 iv
9 iii
10 iv
11 iv
12 iii
13 i
14 ii
15 ii
16 ii
17 iii
18 ii
19 iv
20 iv