exceliit.com AIEEE Examination Model Question Paper : Excel IIT
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Exam : AIEEE Examination Paper
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Excel IIT AIEEE Examination Paper
Code-A :
Subject : Physics, Chemistry , Mathematics
Time : – 3 Hours
Max. Marks:- 432
Related : Excel IIT Joint Entrance Examination Main Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/24295.html
Important Instructions
1. Immediately fill in the part iculars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strict ly prohibited.
2 . The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet . When you are directed to open the Test Booklet , take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the part iculars carefully.
3. The test is of 3 hours durat ion.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 quest ions. The maximum marks are 432.
5. There are three parts in the quest ion paper. The distribut ion of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct response.
Part A : Physics (144 Marks) –Quest ions No. 1 to 20 and 23 to 26 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Quest ions No. 21 to 22 and 27 to 30 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correctresponse.
Part B : Chemistry (144 Marks) – Quest ions No. 31 to 39 and 43 to 57 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Quest ions No.40 to 42 and 58 to 60 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response.
Part C : Mathematics (144 Marks) – Quest ions No.61 to 66, 70 to 83 and 87 to 90 consist of FOUR (4) marks each and Quest ions No. 67 to 69 and 84 to 86 consist of EIGHT (8) marks each for each correct response
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in inst ruct ions No. 5 for correct response of each quest ion. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicat ing incorrect response of each quest ion. No deduct ion from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet .
7. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writ ing part iculars/marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet . Use of pencil is strictly prohibi ted.
8. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examinat ionhall/room.
9. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 2 pages (Pages 38 – 39) at the end of thebooklet .
10. On complet ion of the test , the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
11. The CODE for this Booklet is A. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet
12. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Physics
Directions: Questions number 1 – 3 are based on the following paragraph.
An initially parallel cylindrical beam travels in a medium of refractive index µ (I) = µ0 + µ2I, where µ0 and µ2 are positive constants and I is the intensity of the light beam. The intensity of the beam is decreasing with increasing radius.
1. The initial shape of the wavefront of the beam is –
(1) planar
(2) convex
(3) concave
(4) convex near the axis and concave near the periphery
Ans.[3]
2. The speed of light in the medium is –
(1) maximum on the axis of the beam
(2) minimum on the axis of the beam
(3) the same everywhere in the beam
(4) directly proportional to the intensity I
Ans. [2]
3. As the beam enters the medium, it will –
(1) travel as a cylindrical beam
(2) diverge
(3) converge
(4) diverge near the axis and converge near the periphery
Ans. [3]
5. The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is E2. Then –
(1) E1 = 2E2
(2) E2 = 2E1
(3) E1 > E2
(4) E2 > E1
Ans. [4]
Directions: Questions number 6 – 7 contain Statement-1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.
6. Statement- 1: When ultraviolet light is incident on a photocell, its stopping potential is V0 and the maximum kinetic energy of the photoel ectrons is Kmax. When the ultraviolet light is replaced by X-rays, both V0 and Kmax increase –
Statement – 2 : Photoelectrons are emitted with speeds ranging from zero to a maximum value becaus e the range of frequencies present in the incident light.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Ans. [1]
7. Statement- 1: Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision.
Statement- 2: Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collisions.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Ans. [3]
12. A diatomic ideal gas is used in a Carnot engine as the working substance. If during the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle the volume of the gas increas es from V to 32 V, the effi ciency of the engine is-
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.75
(4) 0.99
Ans. [3]
13. The respective number of signi ficant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are –
(1) 4, 4, 2
(2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5
(4) 5, 5, 2
Ans. [2]
Chemistry
31. In aqueous solution the ionization constants for carboni c acid are 7 1 K 4.2 x10= – and 11 K2 4.8×10= – Selection the correct statement for a saturat ed 0.034 M solution of the carbonic acid.
(1) The concentration of + H is double that of 3 2 CO –
(2) The concentration of 3 2CO – is 0.034 M.
(3) The concentration of 3 2 CO -is greater than that of H 3 CO-
(4) The concentration of + H and H 3 CO- are approximately equal.
Ans.[4]
32. Solution product of silver bromide is 5.0 x 13 10- . The quantity of potassium bromide (molar mass taken as 120 g mol -1 ) to be added to 1 litre of 0.05 M solution of silver nitrate to start the precipitation of AgBr is
(1) 5.0 x 10 -8 g
(2) 1.2 x 10 -10 g
(3) 1.2 x 9 10- g
(4) 6.2 x 10 -5 g
Ans. [3]
33. The correct sequence which shows decreasing order of the ionic radii of the elements is
(1) – – + + 2 > > > 3 O F Na Al
(2) + + – – > > > > + 3 2 2 Al Mg Na F O
(3) Na + > Mg + > Al + >O – > F – 2 3 2
(4) + – – + +> > 2 2 3 Na F Mg O Al
Ans. [1]
35. If 4 10- dm -3 of water is introduced into a 1.0 dm -3 flask at 300 K, how many moles of water are in in the vapour phase when equilibrium is established ?
(Given : Vapour pressure of H O at 300 2 is 3170 pa; R = 8.314 J 1 K- mol -1 )
(1) 1.27 x 10 mol -3
(2) 5.56 x 10 mol -3
(3) 1.53 x10 mol -2
(4) 4346 x 10 mol -2
Ans. [1]
36. From amongst the following alcohols the one that would react fastest with conc, HCI and anhydrous ZNCI , 2 is
(1) 1- Butanol
(2) 2- Butanol
(3) 2- Methylpropan -2-ol
(4) 2- Methylpropanol
Ans. [3]
37. If sodium sulphate is considered to be completely dissociated into cations and anions in equeous solution, the change in freezing point of water ( f T ), When 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is dissolved in 1 kg o f water, is ( 1 f K 1.86K Kg mol= – )
(1) 0.0186 K
(2) 0.0372 K
(3) 0.0558 K
(4) 0.0744 K
Ans. [3]
40. The energy required to break one mole of CI–Cl bonds in 2 Cl is 242 kJ 1 mol- . The longest wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl–Cl bond is (C = 3 x 10 ms and N 6.02×10 mol ) 1 A 238 -1 = –
(1) 494 nm
(2) 594
(3) 640 nm
(4) 700 nm
Ans. [1]
41. 29.5 mg of an organic compound cont aining nitrogen was digested according to Kjeldahl’s method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl solution. The excess of the acid requi red 15 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(1) 29.5
(2) 59.0
(3) 47.4
(4) 23.7
Ans. [4]
Mathematics
61. Consider the following relations
R = {(x, y) | x, y are real numbers and x = wy for some rational number w};{( , )p nm S = | m, n, p and q are integers such that n, q ? 0 and qm = pn}. Then –
(1) R is an equivalence relation but S is not an equivalence rel ation
(2) Neither R nor S is an equivalence relation
(3) S is an equivalence rel ation but R is not an equivalence rel ation
(4) R and S both are equivalence relations
Ans.[3]
62. The number of complex numbers z such that |z –1 | = | z + 1| = | z – i| equals –
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 8
Ans. [2]
63. If a and ß are the roots of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0, then a2009 + ß2009 =
(1) – 2
(2) – 1
(3) 1
(4) 2
Ans. [3]
64. Consider the system of linear equations :
The system has
(1) Infinite number of solutions
(2) Exactly 3 solutions
(3) a unique solution
(4) No solution
Ans. [4]
65. There are two urns. Urn A has 3 distinct red balls and urn B has 9 distinct blue balls. From each urn two balls are taken out at random and then trans ferred to the other. The number of ways in which this can be done is –
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 66
(4) 108
Ans. [4]
69. A person is to count 4500 currency notes. Let an denote the number of notes he counts in the nth minute. If a1 = a2 = …. = a10 = 150 and a10, a11,… are in an AP with common di fference – 2, then the time taken by him to count all notes is –
(1) 24 minutes
(2) 34 minutes
(3) 125 minutes
(4) 135 minutes
Ans. [2]
70. The equation of the tangent to the curve 2 4x y = x + , that is parallel to the x – axis, is –
(1) y = 0
(2) y = 1
(3) y = 2
(4) y = 3
Ans. [4]