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Exam : IIT JEE Joint Entrance Examination Main Paper
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Excel IIT Joint Entrance Examination Main Paper
B-MAT PART TEST-2 :
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Subject : Physics – Mathematics – Chemistry
Related : Excel IIT Joint Entrance Examination Advanced Model Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/24287.html
Instructions
1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct response.
3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking response on side-1 and side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
Part A – Physics
1. For what value of E the potential of A is equal to the potential of B?
(1) 5V
(2) 7V
(3) 10V
(4) 15V
3. What is the density of ice if 0.11% of the volume of iceberg is projecting out of marine water of density -3 1.03 g cm ?
(1) -3 0.98 g cm
(2) -3 0.85 g cm
(3) -3 0.92 g cm
(4) -3 0.8 g cm
4. Two closed organ pipes are sounded simultaneously. When length of the shorter pipe is 1.10 m long, 5 beats are produced. To restrict the beats to 3, to what length hould the shorter pipe be adjusted? [velocity of sound in air is 340 m/s] and 12 0.035] 340 =
(1) 1.04 m
(2) 1.08 m
(3) 1.16 m
(4) 1.13 m
5. Figure below shows three identical springs. When a 4 kg wt. is hung on A, the spring shows an elongation of 1cm. When a weight of 6 kg is hung on B, the hook descends by
(1) 3 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 1 cm
(4) 0.5 cm
6. A sonometer wire, 65 cm long, is in resonance with a tuning fork of frequency n. If the length of the wire is decreased by 1 cm and is vibrated with the same tuning fork, 8 beats are heard per second. What is the value of n?
(1) 256 Hz
(2) 384 Hz
(3) 512 Hz
(4) 480 Hz
7. With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 0.8 mm in diameter move in a liquid column of viscosity – 2 0.15 N s /m and specific gravity 0.9? Density of air is 3 1.293 kg /m .
(1) 0.27 cm/ s
(2) – 0.31 cm/ s
(3) -0.21 cm/ s
(4) 0.38 cm/ s
8. The rate of flow of glycerine of density × 3 3 1.25 10 kg /m through a conical section of a pipe, if the radii of its ends are 0.1 m and 0.04 m, is – × 4 3 6.43 10 m / s . What is the pressure drop across its length? ( ) = 2 0.128 0.016
(1) 2 8 N/m
(2) 2 10 N/m
(3) 2 12 N/m
(4) 2 15 N/m
9. Find the epoch of the simple harmonic motion obtained by combining the motions,
(1) ( ) -1 tan 0.47
(2) ( ) -1 tan 0.38
(3) ( ) -1 tan 2.1
(4) ( ) -1 tan 3.2
10. What would be the speed of rotation of the earth in order that a body on the equator loses half of its weight? [radius of the earth = 6400 km]
(1) – – × 3 1 0.51 10 rad s
(2) – – × 3 1 0.62 10 rad s
(3) – – × 3 1 0.82 10 rad s
(4)0.98 rds -1
Part B – Mathematics
33. An ellipse is represented by the equation + = 2 2 x y 1 25 16 . A hyperbola which is confocal with the above ellipse is such that the length of its transverse axis is equal to the semi-minor axis of the ellipse. Then the sum of the abscissae of the feet of the perpendiculars from a common point of the two curves to theircorresponding directrices is
(1) 29 /3
(2)28 /3
(3) 9
(4) none of these
34. If z is a complex number such that 3 £ z £ 5 and if £ + £ 1 z m zthen the value of 3 + 5m is
(1) 32
(2) 34
(3) 36
(4) 38
35. If the roots of + + = 5 2 x x 1 0 are a1, a2, a3, a4, a5 and ( ) = – 2 g x x 1 then the value of g (a1 ) g (a2 ) g (a3 ) g (a4 ) g (a5 ) – 20 g (a1 a2 a3 a4 a5 ) is
(1) 23
(2) 24
(3) 25
(4) none of these
37. AB is a diameter of the rectangular hyperbola given by xy = 16, then the locus of the point of intersection of the tangent at A and a line parallel to either of theasymptotes through B is
(1) xy – 32 = 0
(2) xy + 22 = 0
(3) xy – 48 = 0
(4) xy + 48 = 0
38. The digit at the unit place of 100 9 2 is
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8
39. A five digit number divisible by 15 is to be formed by using 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (no two digits being repeated). The number of such numbers is
(1) 24
(2) 18
(3) 66
(4) 120
40. If a square matrix A is such that A2 = A and I is unit matrix of the same order and ( + ) = + l 3 I A I A then value of l is
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 4
41. Tangents PA, PB are drawn to the circle + = 2 2 2 x y r , from a point P which lies on ax + by + c = 0, then the locus of the circumcentre of triangle APB is
(1) ax + by – c = 0
(2) 2ax + 2by – c = 0
(3) 2ax + 2by + c = 0
(4) ax + by – r = 0
48. Five digit numbers with 9 as a digit and divisible by 9 are to be formed using the non zero digits (without repetition). The number of such numbers is
(1) 720
(2) 960
(3) 600
(4) none of these
49. The locus of the image of on the family of lines represented by (x + 3y – 7) + µ (4x – y – 2) = 0 is
(1) a straight line
(2) a parabola
(3) a circle
(4) an ellipse
Part C – Chemistry
61. Which one of the following is the correct order of acidic strengths?
(1) CF3COOH > CF3COOH CHC 2 COOH HCOOH C6 H5 CH2COOH CH3COOH
(2) CH3COOH > HCOOH > CF3COOH > CHC2 COOH>C6H5CH2COOH
(3) HCOOH > C6H5CH2COOH > CF3COOH > CHC2 COOH>CH3COOH
(4) CF3COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH>CHC2COOH > C6H5CH2COOH
62. What will be the mass of 90% pure MnO2 to produce 35.5g of C2 according to the following reaction?
+ ® + + MnO2 4HC MnC 2 C 2 2H2O
(1) 43.5 g
(2) 57.5 g
(3) 48.3 g
(4) 51.7 g
63. The geometry of ( )4 Ni CO and ( ) 2 4 Ni CN – are
(1) Both square planar
(2) Both tetrahedral
(3) Tetrahedral and Square planar respectively
(4) Square planar and Tetrahedral respectively
64. The bond enthalpies of H-H, C -C, and H-C are 435, 243, and 431 -1 kJ mo respectively. The enthalpy of formation of ( ) HC g will be:
(1) -1 92kJmol
(2) – – 1 92kJmol
(3) -1 247kJmol
(4) -1 770kJmol
65. K2 [Hg I4 ] detects the ion/group
(1) NH2-
(2) NO3-
(3) NH4+
(4) C –
66. For a reaction to occur spontaneously,
(1) (DH – TDS) must be negative
(2) (DH + TDS) must be negative
(3) DH must be negative
(4) DS must be negative.
67. Freezing point of an aqueous solution is (-0.186) ºC . Elevation of boiling point of the same solution is (Kb and Kf of water is 0.512 and 1 1.86 K kg mol- ).
(1) 0.186ºC
(2) 0.0512ºC
(3) 0.092ºC
(4) 0.2372ºC
68. Which is correct in the case of Fe CN complex?
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Octahedral
(3) 2 3 d sp hybridisation
(4) All are correct
69. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives
(1) D-Glucose and D-fructose
(2) D-Glucose
(3) L-glucose
(4) D-fructose
70. Copper crystallises in fcc lattice with a unit cell length of 361pm. What is the radius of copper atom?
(1) 108 pm
(2) 127 pm
(3) 157 pm
(4) 181 pm
Read The Following Instructions Carefully :
1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet (Side-1) with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
2. For writing/marking particulars on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet, use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.
3. The candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
4. Out of the four options given for each question only one option is the correct answer.
5. For each incorrect response, one-fourth of the total marks allotted to the question would be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet.
6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code) will another set be provided.
7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All calculations/writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked ‘Space for Rough Work’. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet.
8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admit Card to the Invigilator.
10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.
11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet again. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet a second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet.
12. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator and any Electronic Item like mobile phone etc., is prohibited.
13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.