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Excel IIT Joint Entrance Examination Advanced Model Question Paper : exceliit.com

Name of the Organisation : Excel IIT Coaching Classes Pvt. Ltd.
Exam : IIT JEE Joint Entrance Examination Advanced Paper
Document Type : Sample Question Paper
Website : http://www.exceliit.com/IIT-JEE-Sample-Papers.php
Download Sample /Model Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/24287-ExcelIIT.pdf

Excel IIT JEE Advanced Paper

B-MAT PART TEST-I :
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 204
** Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Related : Spectrum JEE Main Exam Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/11284.html

Instructions

A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has 17 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page (page no. 17) of this booklet.

3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
4. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 17) of this booklet.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately, in which appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
6. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

7. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose
B. Question paper format :
1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part A: Chemistry, Part B: Mathematics and Part C: Physics). Each part has 4 sections.
2. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

3. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
4. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension (paragraph) type questions. First set consists of 2 questions and second set has 2 questions, based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one Choice is correct.

5. Section IV contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking scheme :
1. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

2. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

3. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (-1) mark will be awarded.

4. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer in this section.

Part A – Chemistry

SECTION I :
** Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Velocity of electron revolving in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is – × 8 1 2.188 10 cms . The velocity of electron revolving in the first orbit of 2+ Li ion is
(A) – × 8 1 2.188 10 cms
(B) – × 8 1 6.564 10 cms
(C) – × 7 1 7.29 10 cms
(D) – × 8 1 4.376 10 cms

2. Average kinetic energy of gaseous molecule is
(A) directly proportional to molecular weight and temperature
(B) directly proportional to temperature but inversely proportional to molecular weight
(C) directly proportional to temperature only
(D) inversely proportional to temperature only

3. 100 ml of 0.1 N hypo decolourised iodine liberated by the addition of x g of crystalline copper sulphate (mol wt 250) to excess of KI solution. The value of x is
(A) 25.0 g
(B) 5.0 g
(C) 2.5 g
(D) 50. 0 g

4. Which of the following has the longest bond length?
(A) + NO
(B) + O2
(C) – O
2 (D) + N2

5. A 1M solution of glucose attains dissociation equilibrium 6HCHO C6H12O6 If the equilibrium constant is × 22 6 10 , the conc of HCHO at equilibrium is
(A) – × 6 1.6 10 M
(B) – × 3 1.6 10 M
(C) – × 4 1.6 10 M
(D) – × 8 1.6 10 M

SECTION II :
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
9. Which of the following relations are correct for the equilibrium X + Y 3Z if a moles of each X and Y per litre are taken initially in the closed container?
(A) [X] – [Y] = 0
(B) 3[X] + [Z] = 3a
(C) [3X ] – [ 3Y] = a 1 X Y 3
(D) [4X ] + [4Y ] = [ ] 1 4

10. An acid indicator HIn has – = × 5 Ka 3 10 . The acid form is red and basic form is blue. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) pH=5. when indicator is 75% red
(B) pH=4.05 when indicator is 75% red
(C) pH=5 when indicator is 75% blue
(D) pH=4.05 when indicator is 75% blue

Section III :
Comprehension Type :
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 and 14
On the basis of kinetic theory of gases, three different kinds of velocities of molecules can be recognized. These are most probable velocity, average velocity and root mean square velocity.
13. The temperature at which r.m.s velocity of SO2 molecules is half that of helium molecules at 300 K is
(A) 600 K
(B) 900 K
(C) 300 K
(D) 1200 K

14. At certain temperature, average velocity for CH4 gas molecules is 100 m/sec. This velocity for SO2 gas molecules at the same temperature will be
(A) 100 m/sec
(B) 50 m/sec
(C) 150 m/sec
(D) 400 m/sec

Section IV :
Integer Answer Type :
This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a singledigit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following
17. The number of nodal planes in dxy orbital is ________.
18. Of the following ( ) 2 2 5 7 2 2 2 BeX , HgC , PC , IF , C H , Ag CN the number of species having linear shape is ________.
19. The equilibrium constant Kp for the reaction PC5 PC3 + C2 is 1.67 atm at 200ºC. The pressure at which PC 5 will be 50% dissociated at 200ºC is ________.atm.
20. The acid dissociation constants of H2S and – HS are -7 10 and -13 10 respectively. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of H2S will be ________.

Part B – Mathematics

Section I :
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. The equation of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a D ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and x + 2y = 0. If A = (1, -2), then the equation of BC is
(A) 14x + 23y – 40 = 0
(B) 14x – 23y + 20 = 0
(C) 23x – 14y + 40 = 0
(D) 23x + 14y – 20 = 0

22. If 3 3 xsin q + y cos q = cosqsinq and q = y tan , then x
(A) 2 2 x + y = 2
(B) 2 2 x + y = 4
(C) 2 2 x + y = 3
(D) 2 2 x + y = 1

23. If in a D ABC, sinA sinB sinC = p and cosA cosB cosC = q , then the cubic equation having tan A, tan B, tan C as roots is
(A) 3 2 qx + px + qx + p = 0
(B) 3 2 qx – px + qx – p = 0
(C) + + ( + ) + = 3 2 qx px q 1 x p 0
(D) – + ( + ) – = 3 2 qx px q 1 x p 0

Section II :
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
31. Let k be real and a, b be the roots of + + = 2 x 2kx 1 0 . Then the value of k for which 3 3 a b + b a is least when k =
(A) 1/2
(B) -1/2
(C) 2
(D) – 2

Section III :
Comprehension Type :
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 and 36
Given x + y = 3 … (1) – + = 2 2 x y 4y 4. … (2). Consider the triangle formed by (1) and the angle bisectors of the angle between the lines represented by (2).
35. The area of the above triangle is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1/2
(D)1/3

36. The equation of the straight line joining the orthocentre, centroid and circum centre of the above triangle is
(A) x – y + 2 = 0
(B) x – 2y + 4 = 0
(C) x – y + 4 = 0
(D) none of these

Section IV :
Integer Answer Type :
This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a singledigit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following
37. Tangents parallel to the sides of D ABC are drawn to the incircle of D ABC. If x,y,z, are the lengths of the portion of these tangents within the DABC then x y z a b c + + =
40. If A is the point equidistant from the points (0, 0) (2, 0) and (0, 4) and B is the point at which the family of lines represented by (4x – y – 18) + µ (2x + y – 12) = 0 are concurrent then the length AB is …

Part C – Physics

Section I :
Single Correct Answer Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. Referring to the figure below, which is a regular hexagon ABCDEF, find the value of AB + AC + AD + AE + AF .
(A) AO
(B) 2 AO
(C) 4 AO
(D) 6 AO

42. A boy is flying a kite at a height of 30m. If the kite is moving horizontally from the boy at 4 m/s, how fast is the string being paid out, when the kite is 50m from him?
(A) 9.2 m/ s
(B) 8.2 m/ s
(C) 3.2 m/ s
(D) 1.2 m/ s

Section II :
Multiple Correct Answer(s) Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
49. A dust particle of negligible mass begins to fall and gathers vapour at a constant rate b . If the dust particle falls through a distance of 2.45m
(A) acceleration of the particle is g/2
(B) mass of the particle after 1 second is b
(C) both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) (A) is wrong but (B) is correct

50. Two bars AB and BC are hinged together at C. Other end of the rods are hinged together to a vertical wall at A and B as shown. Then, (given sinq1 = 0.64; sinq2 = 0.78 and sin q3 = 0.99 )
(A) the axial force in the bar BC is 640N
(B) the axial force in the bar AC is 780N
(C) the stress in AC is tensile
(D) the stress in BC is compressive

Section III :
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon one of the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions and based on the other paragraph 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 and 54
A gun kept on a straight horizontal road is used to hit a car travelling along the same road away from the gun with a uniform speed of 72 km/h. The car is at a distance of 500 m from the gun when the gun is fired at an angle of 45º to the horizontal. Then given 53 = 7.28

53. The speed of projection of the shell from the gun is
(A) 1 87 ms-
(B) 1 67 ms-
(C) 1 57 ms-
(D) 1 43 ms-

54. The distance of the car from the gun when the shell hits it is approximately
(A) 470 m
(B) 532 m
(C) 632 m
(D) 772 m

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