EDKUL Regional Scholarship Test Class IV Sample Question Paper
Name of the University : EdKul
Exam : EDKUL Regional Scholarship Test
Document Type : Sample Question Papers
Category or Subject : Class IV
Website : edkul [dot] in
Download Model Question Paper :https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/23420-Class4th.pdf
EDKUL Regional Scholarship Test Question Paper
** EDKUL Regional Scholarship Test for classes 3rd to 8th download Sample Paper
Related : YAtt Young Achievers Talent Test Class IV Sample Test Paper 2017-18 : www.pdfquestion.in/23053.html
Program Objective
** Program increases Concentration, Confidence, speed & Accuracy, Intelligence Quotient. (IQ), Self reliance.
1. 8 Levels to Complete the Course,
2. Duration of one level is 3 months,
3. Classes are conducted once a week (2hrs),
4. Certificate are issued after the completion of each level.
Class IV Sample Paper
SECTION – A :
Reasoning
1. Find the odd-one-out.
(a) Shoulder
(b) Foot
(c) Elbow
(d) Arm
Direction for Question 2 & 3. Find out the odd number
2. (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
3. (a) 121 (b) 27 (c) 1 (d) 16
4. A, C, E, G ,I, …?….
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) M
5. Arrange the given words in alphabetical order and tick one that comes first.
(a) Nature
(b) Native
(c) Narrative
(d) Narcotic
6. 2, 5, 8, 11, …?…
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 11
(d) 10
7. 2, 4, 8, 16, …?….
(a) 15
(b) 32
(c) 18
(d) 19
8. If + means ? , – means ? ,÷ means + and ? means -, then the value of 36 ? 12 + 4 ? 6 + 2 – 3 when simplified is
(a) 2
(b) 18
(c) 42
(d) 16 1/2
9. A is mother of B but B is not son of A. Then how is B related to A?
(a) Brother
(b) Daughter
(c) Son
(d) Daughter in law
10. The word pair given in the question has a certain relationship. Select from answer choices a word pair having the same relationship.
Bread: Butter
(a) Powder : Make up
(b) Water : Drink
(c) Umbrella : Rain
(d) Floor : Carpet
SECTION – B :
Mathematics
11. Look at the following:
Find the weight of
(a) 80 kg
(b) 85 kg
(c) 90 kg
(d) 95 kg
12. A is less than B, B is less than C, C is less than D, D is greater than E, E is equal to A. Then choose the correct option
(a) C is smallest among A, B, C, D and E
(b) C is less than A
(c) D is greater among A, B, C, D and E
(d) All of these
13. The following bar graph shows the height of 6 girls in a class. In a sporting event only those girls can participate who have height of 138 cm. Find how much height the shortest girl given in the graph needs to increase his height to participate in the competition?
(a) 20 cm
(b) 18 cm
(c) 16 cm
(d) 14 cm
14. There are eighty six thousand four hundred seconds in a day. How else could this number be written?
(a) 80,064
(b) 80,640
(c) 86,400
(d) 86,404
15. How many vertices does this pyramid have?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
16. Which set of numbers is in order from greatest to least?
(a) 147, 163, 234, 275
(b) 275, 234, 163, 147
(c) 275, 163, 234, 147
(d) 163, 275, 234, 147
17. Danny and Julie have new sticker books. Danny will put 4 stickers in his book every day and Julie will put 6 stickers in her book every day.How many stickers will Danny have when Julie has 30 in her book ?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 30
18. A number has 42 ones, 9 hundreds and 17 tens. What is the number ?
(a) 3,840
(b) 1,112
(c) 91,742
(d) 31,524
19. The perimeter of the given figure is ______
(a) 20 cm
(b) 22 cm
(c) 18 cm
(d) 24 cm
20. What number should go in the blank to make the given number sentence true? 1000 = 4 × ___ × 5
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 25
(d) 100
21. Pia used the things mentioned to make a cake: 1/4 cup butter; 1/4 cup chocolate; 3/4 cup fruits gems. What was the total amount of items she used to make the cake?
(a) 5/12 cup
(b) 1 1/4 cup
(c) 3 1/4 cup
(d) 5 1/8 cup
22. Which of the following is equivalent to 360 minutes?
(a) 1 hour
(b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours
(d) 6 hours
23. One day has 24 hours. How many minutes are there in 50 days?
(a) 72000
(b) 74400
(c) 87600
(d) 87720
24. Sneha had 56 pencils. She gave some pencils to Kanika and had 20 pencils left with her. What was the total number of pencils Sneha gave to Kanika ?
(a) 23
(b) 36
(c) 39
(d) 79
25. Misha bought 14 passes of cricket match. Each pass could be used by 3 people. What was the total number of people that could use the passes ?
(a) 42
(b) 828
(c) 108
(d) 211
SECTION – C :
Science
26. Which of these is an omnivore?
(a) A cat that eats mice.
(b) A cow that eats grass.
(c) A frog that eats insects.
(d) An opossum that eats fruit and fish
27. Which of the following animal’s youngone is similar to the adults in their external structure?
(a) Mosquito
(b) Butterfly
(c) Frog
(d) Cockroach
28. Green plants like spinach are rich in the mineral iron. How do these plants become rich in iron?
(a) They absorb iron from the Sun’s rays.
(b) They prepare iron during photosynthesis.
(c) The roots of these plants absorb iron from the soil.
(d) They absorb iron through the stomata in their leaves.
29. Which of the following diseases is spread by the mosquito?
(a) Cholera
(b) Malaria
(c) Tinea
(d) AIDS
30. Which two of the gases given below make up more than 95% of air?
(a) Oxygen and carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen and nitrogen
(c) Nitrogen and carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrogen and inert gases
31. Rehan wants to eat an apple but has lost some incisors of his mouth. What will be his difficulty?
(a) To cut the apple
(b) To tear away parts of the apple
(c) To crush and grind the apple
(d) To digest the apple
32. Which of the following food components are protective in function but are needed in small quantities?
(a) Proteins
(b) Vitamins
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
33. We call an animal that hunts for its food as a
(a) Autotroph
(b) Saprotroph
(c) Predator
(d) Scavenger
34. Which breathing structure allows a frog to breathe on land and in underwater?
(a) Lungs and gills
(b) Moist skin and gills
(c) Lungs and moist skin
(d) Book lungs and tracheal system
35. Which one of the following properties is not true about water?
(a) It is tasteless
(b) It is colorless
(c) It is odorless
(d) It freezes at 100o C