Organisation : Union Public Service Commission
Document Type : Question Paper
Year : 2015
Post : GDMO, Medical Officer MO Gr-II, Doctor Gr-II
Website : upsc.gov.in/questionpaper/2015/CBRT/2015.htm
Download Model/Sample Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/7231-107_GDMO_QuesPape_2.13.15.pdf
GDMO, Medical Officer, Doctor Question Paper :
1. Which one of the following infections is mainly responsible for recurrent exacerbation of COAD in elderly?
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(a) Rota virus
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Haemophilus influenza
2. The following diseases have autosomal dominant inheritance except :
(a) Polycystic kidney disease
(b) Peutz Jegher syndrome
(c) Phenylketonuria
(d) Von Willebrand disease
3. A young female presents with right heart failure. On examination she has an elevated JVP with giant a wave, systolic murmur at left sternal border, soft delayed P2 with an ejection sound. The ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy. She is likely to have:
(a) Pulmonary stenosis
(b) Tricuspid regurgitation
(c) Atrial septal defect
(d) Ventricular septal defect
4. Nocturnal hypoxaemia in COPD is due to all the following except:
(a) An increase in upper airway resistance because of muscle tone
(b) Stimulation of peripheral chemoreceptors
(c) Shallow breathing in REM sleep, reduced ventilation
(d) Inhibition of intercostals and accessory muscles in REM sleep
5. A 50 year old male presented with acute onset dyspnoea, orthopnoea and pinkish frothy sputum. The clinical diagnosis is:
(a) Acute bronchial asthma
(b) Acute pulmonary oedema
(c) Acute pulmonary embolism
(d) Pneumonia
6. Pseudo membranous colitis is caused by which of the following organisms?
(a) Shigella
(b) E. coli
(c) Clostridium perfringens
(d) Clostridium difficile
7. The ventricular tachycardia can respond to all of the following except:
(a) D C Cardioversion
(b) I.V. Amiodarone
(c) I.V. Lidocaine
(d) I.V. Digitalis
8. Which one of the following cardiac enzymes does not remain elevated for more than 48 hours after myocardial infarction?
(a) Creatinine kinase M B
(b) Troponin T
(c) Lactic dehydrogenase
(d) Aspartate amino transferase
9. All the following are helpful in the management of acute pulmonary oedema except :
(a) Administration of high flow high concentration oxygen
(b) Use of Morphine
(c) Administration of loop diuretics
(d) Make the patient lie in supine position
10. All of the following aggravate heart failure except :
(a) Intercurrent Infection
(b) Arrhythmia
(c) Fluid restriction
(d) Anaemia
11. The following are true for hypertrophied cardio myopathy except:
(a) Systolic murmurs
(b) Triple apical impulse
(c) Diastolic murmur
(d) Jerky carotid pulse
12. ‘Shrinking lungs ‘in systematic lupus erythematosis is attributed to:
(a) Fibrosing alveolitis
(b) Vasculitic infarcts
(c) Pulmonary emboli
(d) Diaphragmatic myopathy
13. Which of the following is a longer acting insulin?
(a) Aspart
(b) Glulisine
(c) Lispro
(d) Glargine
14. Which one of the following is not a risk factor for alcoholic liver disease?
(a) Gender
(b) Hepatitis C
(c) Quality of alcohol
(d) Malnutrition
15. All of the following are true about renal cell carcinoma except :
(a) Secondaries more common than Primary
(b) More common in males
(c) Mainly arise from renal medulla
(d) Mostly occur in sixth and seventh decade
16. Which one of the following is a renal complication of sickle cell anaemia?
(a) Pyuria
(b) Acute papillary necrosis
(c) Reduced GFR
(d) Inability to acidify urine
17. A 65 year old male presents with flexed posture, slowness of gait, expression less face and tremor 4-6 Hz in hand. He is most likely suffering from:
(a) Alzheimer’s disease
(b) Huntington’s disease
(c) Parkinson’s disease
(d) Lathyrism
18. A 19 year old female presents with a history of repeated falls in the past one year. A diagnosis of epilepsy is supported by all of the following except :
(a) occurs only in the presence of the mother
(b) occurs when watching the TV
(c) acute and chronic hypocalcaemia
(d) aura before the attack
19. Bell’s Palsy is
(a) usually bilateral
(b) usually associated with normal nerve conduction studies in early stages
(c) presenting feature of acoustic neuroma
(d) associated with herpetic vesicles in ipsilateral ear
20. Which of the following regarding haemophilias is not correct?
(a) Haemophilia A is commoner than Haemophilia B
(b) Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder
(c) Haemophilia B is commoner than Haemophilia A
(d) Bleeding normally affects joints
21. Which one of the following diseases is deficient in Glycoprotein IIbIIIa (GpIIbIIIa) platelet receptor?
(a) Von Willebrand’s disease
(b) Glanzmann’s disease
(c) Bernard-Souler syndrome
(d) Storage pool disease
22. Which of the following is not found in severe Beta thalassemia?
(a) Hepatospleenomegaly
(b) Growth retardation
(c) Bone deformities
(d) Haemoglobin level of 7 to 8 gm percent
23. Polycythemia may be seen with all of the following except :
(a) Heavy smokers
(b) High altitude
(c) Renal cell carcinoma
(d) Congenital heart disease with left to right shunt
24. Hypertension and hypokalaemia are observed in which one of the following conditions?
(a) Renal artery stenosis
(b) Cushing’s syndrome
(c) Phaeochromocytoma
(d) Barter’s syndrome
25. In Endemic Cretinism:
(a) Deafness is common
(b) Treatment with thyroxine in early neonatal period results in normal neurological development
(c) Thyroid antibodies are present in high titres
(d) Treatment of pregnant women with antithyroid drugs is an important cause
26. In a stable insulin dependent(Type-I) Diabetes Mellitus patient, an increased daily dose of insulin is likely to be required in:
(a) Chronic renal failure
(b) Third trimester of pregnancy
(c) Treatment with propranolol
(d) Weight loss
27. Pheochromocytoma is characterised by the following features except:
(a) It arises from the chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla
(b) It may be a part of multiple endocrinal neoplasia type II
(c) It may lead to hypertensive encephalopathy and cause convulsions
(d) It is a 5-HT secreting tumour
28. Following are the hallmarks of Cushing’s disease except :
(a) There is a bilateral adrenal hyperplasia secondary to excessive pituitary ACTH
(b) It generally occurs from an acidophilic pituitary adenoma
(c) Manifestations are attributed to gluconeogenesis
(d) Urinary free cortisol and 17-hydrosteroids are elevated
29. Galactorrhoea may be caused by treatment with:
(a) Isoniazid
(b) Spironolactone
(c) Haloperidol
(d) Ketoconazole
30. Antibodies diagnostic of systemic lupus erythematosus are:
(a) dsDNA antibodies
(b) Anti-centromere antibodies
(c) Anti-histone antibodies
(d) SCL-70 antibodies
31. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism is typically associated with:
(a) Atrophy of the testicular interstitial (Leydig) cells
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY)
(c) Isolated GnRH deficiency(Kallmann’s syndrome)
(d) Cryptorchidism
32. Systemic hypertension may be seen in all of the following conditions except:
(a) Conn’s syndrome
(b) Polyarteritis nodosa
(c) Chronic glomerulonephritis
(d) Addison’s disease
33. Regarding hyperosmolar nonketotic diabetic coma, all the following are true except:
(a) It is seen in non-insulin dependent diabetes
(b) It is precipitated by infections
(c) Blood urea nitrogen may be elevated
(d) There is large anion gap
34. All of the following can be used as microbial bioterrorism agents except:
(a) Salmonella
(b) Plague
(c) Anthrax
(d) Botulism
35. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of respiratory acidosis?
(a) Elevated arterial pCO2
(b) Decreased plasma pH
(c) Bounding pulse and mental stupor
(d) Rapid shallow breathing
36. Which one of the following statements concerning porphyric neuropathy is correct?
(a) It is symmetrical and weakness is more proximal than distal
(b) It predominantly involves the sensory system
(c) It is associated with inflammation of nerve
(d) It causes elevated protein concentration in CSF
37. Which one of the following tests is the most sensitive for detecting diabetic nephropathy?
(a) Serum creatinine level
(b) Creatinine clearance
(c) Microalbuminurea
(d) Ultrasonography
38. Monitoring of antiretroviral treatment in a case of HIV is based on:
(a) Lymphocyte count
(b) CDS count
(c) CD4 Count
(d) Viral load
39. All of the following are clinical presentations of hypercalcemia except:
(a) Polyuria
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Abdominal pain
(d) Psychosis
40. Which one of the following is not a feature of measles (Rubeola)?
(a) Usually occurs in childhood
(b) Incubation period is about 10 days
(c) Koplik’s spots are characteristic
(d) Resolution occurs with scarring
41. Mycoplasma pneumoniae characteristically may produce complications except:
(a) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
(b) Raynaud’s phenomenon
(c) Rapid and severe haemolysis due to cold agglutinin
(d) Pericardial tamponade
42. Chlamydial infection can lead to all of the following diseases except:
(a) Trachoma
(b) Urethritis
(c) Atypical pneumonia
(d) Appendicitis
43. Forced alkaline diuresis is indicated in:
(a) Acute alcoholic intoxication
(b) Barbiturate poisoning
(c) Salicylate poisoning
(d) Lead poisoning
44. Which one of the following chemotherapeutic drugs is M-phase specific?
(a) Hydroxyurea
(b) Methotrexate
(c) Vincristine
(d) Cyclophosphamide
45. Gum hypertrophy can be seen in:
(a) ALL
(b) CLL
(c) AML
(d) CML
46. Polymorphonuclear leucocytosis is seen in which one of the following ?
(a) Whooping cough
(b) Typhoid
(c) Pneumococcal infection
(d) Tuberculosis
47. The most common infective cause of retinal disease with HIV infection is:
(a) Toxoplasmosis
(b) Cytomegalo virus infection
(c) Cryptococcal infection
(d) Parvo virus infection
48. Alzheimer’s dementia is a syndrome characterised by all of the following features except:
(a) It is usually progressive in nature.
(b) It is associated with seizures.
(c) The consciousness of the patient is not clouded.
(d) It is marked by disturbance of higher mental functions.
49. The following are known causes of dementia that can be treated effectively with timely medical or surgical intervention except :
(a) Subdural haematoma
(b) Vitamin B12 deficiency
(c) Alzheimer’s disease
(d) Thyroid hormone deficiency
50. Likely causes of laryngotracheobronchitis in a two year old child are all the following except:
(a) Coxsackie virus
(b) Parainfluenza virus type-1
(c) Respiratory syncytial virus
(d) Influenza A virus