KSEAB II PU Biology Model Question Paper 2025 Karnataka

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KSEAB II PU Biology Model Question Paper 2025 Karnataka

Organisation : Karnataka School Examination & Assessment Board (KSEAB)
Class Name : II PU
Subject : Biology
Download : Model Question Paper 2025
Website : https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/ModelQp2025/frmkmpdamodelpapers

KSEAB II PU Biology Model Question Paper

I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below:

Related / Similar Question Paper : KSEAB II PU Geology Model Question Paper 2025 Karnataka

1. Statement I: Apomixis is the production of seeds from unfertilized ovules
Statement II: Embryos produced from apomictic seeds are not generally identical to the parent plant.
a) Statement I is true, statement II is false
b) Statement I is false, statement II is true
c) Statement I and statement II both are true
d) Statement I and statement II both are false

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2. Out of the options given below choose the correct stage for transfer to the fallopian tube for successful IVF results.
a) Embryo up to 8 blastomeres
b) embryo up to 16 blastomeres
c) Embryo up to 32 blastomeres
d) Embryo up to 32 blastomeres

3. 37.2% recombinant Drosophila progeny obtained in the T. H. Morgan’s dihybrid cross experiment with the phenotypes red eye color, normal body and white eye color, miniature body is due to;
a) Loosely linked and shorter distance between genes
b) Tightly linked and shorter distance between genes
c) Loosely linked and longer distance between genes
d) Tightly linked and longer distance between genes

4. The number of nucleotide pairs present in the DNA of the primary oocyte of a new born in human
a) 3.3 x 109
b) 6.6 x 109
c) 13. 2 x 109
d) 3.3 x 107

5. The factors that affect Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium are listed below;
i) Crossing over, Independent assortment
ii) Crossing over, Mutation,
iii) Genetic drift, Crossing over
iv) Independent assortment, Mutation

Choose the correct options:
a) i, ii and iii
b) ii, iii and iv
c) i, iii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv

7. Interferons are most effective in making non-infected cells resistant against the spread of which of the following diseases in humans?
a) AIDS
b) Ascariasis
c) Ringworm
d) Amoebiasis

8. The human host cells in which the gametocytes of malarial parasite develop are
a) Thrombocytes
b) Liver cells
c) Erythrocytes
d) Leucocytes

9. Which of the following water samples in the table given below will have a higher concentration of organic matter?
Water Sample Level of pollution Value of BOD
a) High High
b) Low Low
c) Low High
d) High Low

10. The steps of Recombinant DNA technology are given below:
i) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host organism
ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations
iv) Obtaining the foreign product
v) Downstream processing
vi) Isolation of DNA

Choose the correct option for the sequential steps of Recombinant DNA technology.
a) vi, ii, iii, iv, v, i
b) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii
c) vi, ii, iii, iv, v, i
d) vi, iii ii, i, iv,, v,

11. DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography is called
a) Template
b) Probe
c) Transcript
d) Cistron

12. Jeeva was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory conditions where the resources sooner or later become limiting. Which of the following equations will represents the correct growth in this case?
a) dN/dt = rN
b) dN/dt = KN
c) dN/dt = rN (K – N/K)
d) dN/dt = rN (K +N/K)

13. Which of the following food chains is the major conduit for the energy flow in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems respectively?
Terrestrial Aquatic
a) Grazing Grazing
b) Detritus Detritus
c) Detritus Grazing
d) Grazing Detritus

14. Which of the following is not an example of in-situ conservation?
a) National park and seed bank
b) National park and Zoological parks
c) Seed bank and sacred groove
d) Seed bank and Botanical gardens

15. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is
a) Biofortification
b) Bioprocessing
c) Bioprospecting
d) Biodiversity

II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/Words from those given below:
(Competent cells, Bacteria, non-living molecule, vectors, Competent cells, Recombinant cells)
16. The interstitial space in seminiferous tubules consists of immunologically ————-
17. The version of biogenesis is accepted by majority, as the first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from ———-.
18. Filariasis pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through ———–
19. Swiss cheese with large holes is produced from ————
20. The host cells which have the ability to incorporate foreign DNA within them are called ————

III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences wherever applicable:
21. Complete the tabular column given below with respect to the male gametophyte of angiosperms
Cells of the male gametophyte
Shape of nucleus of the cells
22. Mention the two medical grounds on which the pregnancies are subjected to termination.
23. Derive the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of a cross between AB blood group parents.
24. Which sequences of bases transcribed from DNA are found both in hnRNA and mRNA?
25. “Potato tubers and Sweet potato tubers are the result of convergent evolution”. Justify the statement.
26. What are biofertilizers? Mention its significance.
27. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.

IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 – 80 words each wherever applicable:
28. Draw a labeled diagram of the fertilised female gametophyte and mention the ploidy of any one of the products of double fertilization.
29. Parturition is induced by complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Comment.
30. The popular and effective contraceptives include IUDs. Mention the types of IUDs with an example of each.
31. Write the salient feature of the following human ancestors;
i) Dryopithecus ii) Ramapithecus iii) Australopithecus iv) Homo habilis
v) Neanderthal man vi) Homo erectus
32. Describe any three properties of Cancerous cells.