Organisation : Karnataka School Examination & Assessment Board (KSEAB)
Class Name : II PU
Subject : Political Science
Download : Model Question Paper 2025
Website : https://dpue-exam.karnataka.gov.in/ModelQp2025/frmkmpdamodelpapers
KSEAB II PU Political Science Model Question Paper
I. Answer the following questions by choosing the correct answers:
Related / Similar Question Paper : KSEAB II PU Sociology Model Question Paper 2025
1. Consider the statement and mark the correct answer relating to the issue of Re-poll.
i) Destroy of EVM during poll
ii) A voter violates election norms
iii) Violation of secrecy of voting
iv) Voter refuse to vote.
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) only
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. The World Environment Day is celebrating on
a) 4th June
b) 10th June
c) 7th June
d) 5th June
3. Name the Dictator of Libya.
a) Abdul Hafiz Ghogya
b) Muammar Quaddafi
c) Mustafa Abdul Jalil
d) Mohammad Morsi
4. Which Organisation will save the future generation from the destruction of war? Look at the picture given below and answer the question which follows:
a) ASEAN
b) UNO
c) NATO
d) BRICS
5. Which of the following is best suitable
a) Indira Gandhi and Z.A. Bhutto signed Tashkent Aggreement
b) Ayub Khan and Indira Gandhi signed Simla Agreement
c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Zou-en-Lai signed Panchasheel
d) V.P.Singh and Nawaz Sharieff signed Lahor Convention.
II. Answer the following questions by filling in the blanks:
(2002, L.A. Kauffman, The Hague, England, Speaker)
6. The ______shall not be disqualified under Anti Defection Act he quit his original party.
7. The Bio Diversity Act came into force in__________
8. ________identified the Identity Politics.
9. The International Court of Justice is located in_________
10. ________is the head of the CHOGM
III. Match the following:
11. a) Boundary Commission i) Massourie
b) Lal Bahadur Shastri ii) UNO
c) Terrorism iii) Dr: B.R. Ambedkar
d) 24th October 1945 iv) Terrere
e) Mooka Naika v) Central Legislature
vi) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
IV. Answer the following questions in one sentence each:
12. What is ‘Operation Polo’?
13. When was Manusmrithi implemented?
14. Name the head who protect the human rights in the district.
15. Expand LAC.
16. Who was called as Bangabandhu?
Part-B:
V. Answer any Five of the following questions in 2-3 sentences each:
17. What is State Funding?
18. Give any two examples of Central Services.
19. What is the procedure for the removal of members of UPSC?
20. Write the popular slogans of Dr: B.R. Ambedkar.
21. Refer the picture and write the meaning of Compulsory Education.
22. Mention any three coalition partners of NDA.
23. Define International Relations.
24. What is ‘Perestroika’ and ‘Glasnost’?
Part – C:
VI. Answer any Six of the following questions in 15-20 sentences each:
25. Describe the accession of Junagadh, Hyderabad and Kashmir.
26. Give reasons for language as basis for State Re-organisation.
27. Critically examine the functions of Chief Secretary in State Administration.
28. Disucss about Unscientific Land Acquisition.
29. Explain the various components of Nation-Building.
30. What are the causes for the raise of Identity Politics.
31. Justify the facts that youths are actively participating the movement against corruption.
32. Explain the ceoncepts of International Relations.
33. Evaluate the role of India in the United Nations in promoting World Peace.
Part – D:
VII. Answer any Two of the following questions in 30-40 sentences each:
34. Explain the nature of Party System in India.
35. Describe the causes and remedial measures to eradicate Communalism.
36. Substantiate the effects of Crony Capitalism on Modern Governments.
37. Explain the basic principles of Indian Foreign Policy.
Part – E:
(For Visually challenged students)
Q.No.4. Where is the Headquarters of SAARC situated?
a) New Delhi b) Kathmandu c) Dhaka d) Islamabad
Q.No.21. Write any two hindrances of the Nation-Building.
Q.No.31. Write the merits of Coalition Government.
Instructions:
1 Answer all the questions.
2. Figures in the margin indicate full marks.
3.Write correct question numbers for your answers.
4. For Part – A questions, only the first written answers will be considered for evaluation.
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