Organisation : National Digital Library of India
Exam Name : Biotechnology Eligibility Test BET Question Paper
Document Type : Question Paper
Year : 2022
Website : http://www.ndl.gov.in/cd_document/bet/2022_qp
National Digital Library of India BET Question Paper
1. 500 mg of a drug (Molecular weight 100) was intravenously injected into an individual having a blood volume of 5 liter. The drug is neither absorbed by the tissues nor it is excreted. If the drug is metabolized so that half of it is degraded in eight hours, what would be the molar concentration of the drug one day after injection?
1. 2.5 mM
2. 1.25 mM
3. 0.625 mM
4. 0.0312 mM
2. The motifs commonly found in the core promoter of eukaryotic protein coding genes are:
1. TATA and Pribnow box
2. Motif ten element and TATA
3. BRE and Kozak consensus sequence
4. TRE and TATA
3. The cytosine residues in the DNA are methylated at specific di‐ or trinucleotide sequences. Which among these methylation motifs are found predominantly in case of protein‐coding genes in plants? H stands for A, T or C.
1. CpG and CpHpG
2. CpHpG and CpHpH
3. CpGpG and CpHpH
4. CpG and CpHpH
4. While measuring the potassium concentration in a drug formulation, the technologist took 10 μl of the sample and mixed it with 90 μl of test buffer. From the resulting solution, he took 5 μl and measured its total potassium content as 25 ng. What would be the concentration of potassium in the drug formulation?
1. 50 ng/ μl
2. 25 ng/ μl
3. 75 ng/ μl
4. 100 ng/ μl
5. You are given a 5 mM solution of sucrose. If you hydrolyse it by adding equal volume of 10 mM HCl, what would be the final concentration of glucose and fructose in the hydrolysate?
1. 5 mM glucose and 5 mM fructose
2. 2.5 mM glucose and 2.5 mM fructose
3. 1.25 mM glucose and 1.25 mM fructose
4. 1.25 mM glucose and 2.5 mM fructose
6. The introduction of the nonpolar molecule (toluene) into water results in:
1. a decrease in the entropy of water.
2. an increase in the entropy of water.
3. no change in entropy of water.
4. modest exothermic dissolution.
7. Eukaryotic RNA Polymerase II transcribes:
1. rRNA and tRNA genes
2. mRNA and tRNA genes
3. mRNA and 5S rRNA genes
4. mRNA, miRNA and snRNA genes
8. You are preparing a 500 ml solution containing 50 mM Tris (FW 120) buffer, 10 mM NaCl (FW 58.5), 5 mM EDTA (supplied solution is 500 mM). The quantity of each of the ingredients would be:
1. 6.0 g Tris, 2.92 g NaCl, 5 ml EDTA
2. 3.0 g Tris, 0.292 g NaCl, 5 ml EDTA
3. 1.5 g Tris, 0.292 g NaCl, 5 ml EDTA
4. 0.75 g Tris, 0.029 g NaCl, 5 ml EDTA
9. In eukaryotes, nucleosomes comprise of which one of the following histones?
1. H1, H2A, H2B, and H3
2. H2A, H2B, H3, and H4
3. H1, H2B, H3, and H4
4. H1, H2A, H3, and H4
10. Which one of the following statements is true with respect to optical activity?
1. A relationship exists between the (R) and (S) configurations of enantiomers and the direction [(+) or (−)] in which they rotate plane‐polarized light.
2. Equimolar mixture of D and L isomers of the same compound will be optically active.
3. Meso compounds that are optically inactive may contain stereogenic centers or chiral centers.
4. Optical activity is independent of temperature.
11. Which one of the following compound(s) is/are NOT the carbon source of acetyl Co‐A?
1. Ethanol
2. Valine/ isoleucine
3. Pyruvate
4. Oxaloacetate/ acetoacetate
12. How many words can be formed with the letters of the word ‘PATALIPUTRA’?
1. 11!/2! 3!
2. 11!/2! 2! 3!
3. 11!/3! 1! 2!
4. 11!/3!
13. A ladder leaning against a wall is making an angle of 60° with the ground. If the length of the ladder is 18 m, find the distance of the foot of the ladder from the wall.
1. 9√3 m
2. 9 m
3. 18/√2 m
4. 18√3 m
14. The function y = f(x) = X – 6 is plotted along with its inverse function y = f (x), where essentially the x & y axis are interchanged. These two curves will intersect at:
1. (0, 0)
2. (2, 3)
3. (2, 2) & (3, 3)
4. (‐2, ‐2) & (3, 3)
15. The probability that 1 of January is a Sunday in at least one of the 3 randomly chosen years is given by:
1. 3/7
2. 1 – (6/7)
3. (3/7)
4. (1 – 3/7)
16. An aircraft circumnavigates the earth 10 km above the earth’s surface. If it completes one full circle, the distance covered will be _____ greater than the circumference of the earth. (Assume earth radius is 3280 km, and = 3.14)
1. 62.8 km
2. 628 km
3. 6280 km
4. 12560 km
17. A growing bacterial culture doubles in 1 hr; the increase in cell mass in 30 minutes will be:
1. Zero
2. 50%
3. Less than 50%
4. More than 50%
18. Two random numbers are generated between zero and one and added. The probability that the sum of these two numbers will be between 0.5 and 1.5 is:
1. 50%
2. 75%
3. 90%
4. 100%
19. If 2 = 3 = 6 = K, then the relationship between x, y, and z is given by:
1. x+y = z
2. xy = z
3. 1/x + 1/y = 1/z
4. x =y =z
20. A plasmid has three sites for EcoRI. When digested by this enzyme, incidentally partial digestion took place, though no uncut or nicked plasmid remained in the digestion mixture. The maximum number of bands that can be visualized in an agarose gel would be:
1. 1
2. 3
3. 7
4. 10
21. An enzyme is governed by Michaelis‐Menten Kinetics. The apparent K increases four fold due to the addition of inhibitor but the reaction rate declines by 50%. The substrate concentration in the reaction is:
1. S = Km
2. S = 2 Km
3. S = 3 Km
4. S = 4 Km
22. A culture contains two bacterial populations ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in equal proportion. On dilution plating only two colonies were obtained due to excessive dilution. The probability that one will be X and other will be Y is:
1. 100%
2. 75%
3. 50%
4. 25%
23. For transcribing protein coding genes, the RNA Polymerase forms the preinitiation complex (PIC) in association with:
1. TFIIA, TFIID, TFIIG
2. TFIIA, TFIIG, TFIIH
3. TFIIH, TFIIF, TFIID
4. TFIIC, TFIID, TFIIF
24. During signal transduction, one molecule of phosphatidylinositol 4,5‐bisphosphate (PIP2) is cleaved into one molecule each of inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) by the enzyme:
1. Lipolyase C
2. Phosphatase C
3. Phosphodiesterase C
4. Phospholipase C
Format of Question Paper for BET
** Question paper will have two parts, Part-A (General aptitude & General Biotechnology) and Part-B (General plus specialized branches in Biotechnology).
** Part-A will have all compulsory 50 MCQ questions in General science, Mathematics, Chemistry, General aptitude, analytical, quantitative ability, general biotechnology etc.
** There will be 150 questions in Part B, out of which only 50 questions need to be answered.
Aptitude:
Questions may include Comprehension based, where a written paragraph is given for the students to read and then questions based on that paragraph is asked. They may be designed to test non-verbal reasoning capacity (e.g., by finding the odd one out in a series of abstract pictures), they may also be of quantitative type; designed to test the students ability to comprehend large numbers and do simple calculations.
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Biotechnology Eligibility Test BET 2022 Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2024/42951-q.pdf