Organisation : Indian Railways
Recruitment Exam : Appendix IIIA IREM Examination
Document Type : Model Question Paper
Year : 2024
Website : https://indianrailways.gov.in/
Appendix IIIA IREM Exam Model Question Paper
1. Read the following statements carefully and find out which one of the following option/s given is/are correct/most appropriate regarding the meaning of “Government Account’ as defined in GFR?
Statement1: “Government Account” means the account relating to the Consolidated Fund;
Statement2: “Government Account” means the account relating to the Contingency Fund;
Statement3: “Government Account” means the account relating to the Consolidated Fund, Contingency fund and the Public Account;
Options:
A) Statement 1
B) Statement 2
C) Statement 3
D) None of the given options
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2. With the merger of Railway Budget with the General Budget, the Demands for Grants and the Statement of Budget Estimates of Railways shall also be part of the General Budget with effect from 2017-18. Which of the following GFR stipulates this?
Options:
A) Rule 42 (2) GFR
B) Rule 43 (2) GFR
C) Rule 43 (1) GFR
D) Rule 42 (2) GFR
3. Which one of the following option is not true with reference to the sanctioning powers of GMs regarding detailed estimates?
Options:
A) GM can sanction any excess due to cost escalation
B) GM can sanction any excess due to other than cost escalation
C) GM can sanction Material modification up to Rs 2.5 Cr
D) GM can sanction any excess due to scope within 20% of the Abstract cost.
4. An item of expenditure may be held by Accounts officer under objection for one or more reasons and every Railway Officer should attend promptly to the objection communicated to him by the Accounts Officer. Which one of the following is not the correct option on the category of objection?
Options:
A) Want of sanctioned estimate and Excess over sanctioned estimate;
B) Want of generation of additional revenue falling short of projected figures in the Budget
C) Want of sanctioned appropriation and Excess over sanctioned appropriation
D) Miscellaneous reasons e. g., absence of vouchers, breach of financial rule, incorrect allocation, etc
5. What is the term to be used from now on for Surveys as per the Railway Board instructions?
Options:
A) Preliminary Engg cum Traffic Surveys
B) Feasibility Studies
C) Viability Reports
D) Technical and Viability Reports
6. Which option is correct regarding the sequence of events in Investment Planning and Capital Budget on IR?
Options:
A) Preliminary Works Program, Advance Planning, Scrutiny of Schemes/Proposals, Final Works program and Pink Book
B) Advance Planning, Scrutiny of Schemes/Proposals, Preliminary Works Program, Final Works program and Pink Book
C) Advance Planning, Scrutiny of Schemes/Proposals, Preliminary Works Program, Pink Book and Final Works program.
D) Preliminary Works Program, Advance Planning, Scrutiny of Schemes/Proposals,, Final Works program and Pink Book
7. Which one of the options is correct regarding the normal sequence of occurrence of the necessity of preparation of estimates for construction of Major Projects?
Options:
A) Project Abstract Estimates, Supplementary estimates, Construction Estimates, Revised estimates and Completion Estimates
B) Project Abstract Estimates, Revised estimates, Construction Estimates, Supplementary Estimates and Completion Estimates
C) Project Abstract Estimates, Construction Estimates, Supplementary Estimates, Completion Estimates and Revised estimates
D) Project Abstract Estimates, Construction Estimates, Revised estimates, Supplementary Estimates and Completion Estimates
8. When can you presume that the Abstract Estimate is approved/sanctioned?
Options:
A) If the work is included in the PWP, FWP and Pink Book
B) If the work is included in the Pink Book, LAW or LSWP
C) If the work is included in the PWP, Pink Book
D) If the work is included in the PWP and FWP
9. Which of the option is not correct regarding the types of Umbrella works?
Options:
A) Umbrella works containing provision to execute the works on one Railway.
B) Umbrella works containing provision to execute the works on more than one Railway.
C) Umbrella works containing provision to execute the works on one Railway collectively for all plan heads.
D) Umbrella works under Plan head 1100,1400 ,1500 & 3500
10. Which of the following options is not true regarding Lumsum works?
Options:
A) For PH 5100, 3000 GM can approve works up to Rs.1 Cr only, except works related to Hospitals under PH 5100, where in the powers of GM are Rs 2.5 Cr each.
B) DRMs can approve new works under PH 5100 up to Rs.20 Lakhs only.
C) There is hardly any Lumsum grant these days in the Pink Book, in view of the Umbrella works
D) None of the given options
11. Which one of the Following will constitute Material Modification?
Options:
A) Modifications that arise due to issue of policy by Board for change in specification or standards of Construction. Interlocking, Electrification, Traction etc
B) Modifications resulting out of statutory/ regulatory requirements
C) Modifications to bring in economy in construction and timely delivery of project and any work essentially required for completing the project.
D) None of the given options.
12. Which one of the following is not correct regarding grant of Mobilization advances by GM in works contracts
Options:
A) 10% of the contract value can be sanctioned Mobilization Advance of & Advance Against Machinery and Equipment (not exceeding 75% of the purchase price of such Equipment)
B) 5% of the contract value as an Advance for accelerating progress of the work during course of execution of Contract
C) 5% of the contract value as an Advance in Exceptional Cases
D) None of the given options
13. The land required for the use of IR should be taken under the ——which confers indefeasible title.
Options:
A) Special Railway Act
B) Land Acquisition Act
C) Indian Railways Act
D) Act of RLDA
14. The bills of contractors for work done or supplies made should be prepared in any one of the following forms. Please choose the incorrect one out.
Options:
A) Petty Contract bill
B) Pay order
C) Running or On Account bill or CC bill
D) Final Bill or FCC
15. Which of the following is not correct regarding the Purpose of maintaining the Register of works?
Statement1: It is a collective record of expenditure and designed for effecting control of expenditure on works with reference to estimates, by facilitating comparison between the expenditure incurred on each work and the detailed provision made in the estimate for work;
Statement2: For effecting budgetary control, by facilitating a comparison between the budget allotment for the work and the actual expenditure to the end of the month
Statement3: To enable any material modification occurring being spotted and objection rose for regularization of excess over estimates
Options:
A) 3 only
B) 2 only
C) None of the given statements
D) 2 and 3
16. As per the latest instructions vetting of finance is not required for which of the following?
Options:
A) All Lumsum works
B) All PWP works
C) All Umbrella Works
D) All OOT works on safety consideration
17. As per the latest instructions, the provision made under Umbrella works can be utilized for how many years?
Options:
A) Till completion of the provision made in the budget
B) Only one year
C) Only two years
D) Only five years
18. Tick the odd one out.
Options:
A) EMD/Bid Security
B) Performance Guarantee
C) Security Deposit
D) Liquidated Damages
19. Which one of the following is not a link head between Govt and Commercial Accounts?
Options:
A) Labour
B) Demands payable
C) Bills recoverable
D) Traffic Account
20. PEI – Performance Efficiency Index formulae is _______
Options:
A) OWE/Total Originating Earnings*100
B) Total expenditure/Total Originating Earnings*100
C) Expenditure under SMH 1 to 12/Total Originating Earnings*100
D) Expenditure under SMH 1 to 14/Gross Earnings*100
Download Question Paper here : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2024/42382-q.pdf
Scheme of Computer Based Test
Duration : 2 Hrs
Total Marks : 100
Each Question Carries : 1 Mark
** There are 110 questions in all. The candidates may answer any 100 questions. Candidate must select the correct option against the question number
** There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer
Candidates are advised to read the question carefully and attempt only 100 questions.
Important Instructions For Candidates
1. Please bring the downloaded copy of Admit card which has your photo pasted and duly attested by the controlling officer. Admission to the CBT examination center will be on the production of the admit card.
2. Bring any one Photo Identity Proof such as PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ Voter’s Card/ Nationalized Bank Passbook with photograph/Aadhaar card / Notarized Affidavit /Government Office ID card with Photo, Signature and Date of Birth. Candidate without valid Photo ID proof will not be permitted to appear for the examination.
3. You must bring stationery (pencils, ballpoint pen) with you. Rough sheets will be provided at Examination Center.
4. Examination will be conducted online (CBT Mode). You must enter your User Name (your Roll No.), PIN. (given in Admit Card) and Password(which will be given at Exam Center) to login 5 mins before the Exam Start time to read the Assessment related instructions. Please ensure that your Name and other details which will subsequently appear on the screen are correct.
5. Use of books, notebooks, logarithmic table, data storage device, camera, bags, watch calculators, pagers, cell phones and ring with built in calculator/memory, digital diary, any Bluetooth device etc. or any other electronic gadgets or recording devices are not permitted in the examination area.
6. The candidate must keep the Admit Card with him/her and produce it on demand to the Presiding Officer of the Examination Centre or any other person authorized in this regard.
7. You are advised to report to the examination venue at the time mentioned on the Admit card. Candidate will not be allowed to Enter Examination venue after Gate Closure time.
8. A seat marked with Roll number be allotted to each candidate. Candidates will be required to find out and occupy their allotted seats.
9. The candidates should carefully read the instructions given on the Computer before attempting the question papers.
10. A candidate, who uses unfair means whether detected either in the examination hall or later by the examiner / evaluator or in Railway Board’s Office, shall be debarred from the present and future examination as per rules.
11. Candidate has been allotted a different roll no. for each shift. Candidate must ensure that correct Roll is entered for as provided in the admit card.
12. The question paper is bi-lingual, i.e. English and Hindi. For interpretation purpose and also in case of any ambiguity/ discrepancy, the English version shall prevail.
13. Candidates are not allowed to leave the exam hall before the close of the exam. On completion of the examination, please wait for instructions from Invigilator and do not get up from your seat until advised. The candidates will be permitted to move out one at a time only.
14. Please ensure that the name of the post displayed on the screen is the one you have opted for and indicated on your E-Call letter. In case of any discrepancy, please bring it to the notice of the Invigilator immediately.
15. There is no facility for safe keeping of bags/ornaments/valuables etc.
16. Candidates may note that they will have to download the admit card twice. The detail of center shall be updated on 3rd June 2024.
17. There shall be 110 questions out of which candidate have to attempt any 100 question. Each question shall be given 04 options. Candidates shall read carefully given options before choosing of one correct answer. The duration of each objective paper shall be 2 hours.
18. Each question shall carry 01 mark, so the total marks shall be 100 only.
19. There will be negative mark of 0.25 for each of the wrong answer.
20. Calculators is not permitted in objective papers.
21. The questions will be displayed on the screen one at a time with their respective four options.