Organisation : National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
Entrance Exam : Common Entrance Examination 2024 CEE
Document Type : Old Question Paper
Year : 2022
Website : https://cee.ncert.gov.in/
NCERT CEE Old Question Paper
Maximum Marks : 160
Time Allowed : 2 Hours
PART-A
Language Proficiency
(Expected Answering Time: 20 Minutes)
Direction: (Question No. 1-5)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
** The problem of water pollution by pesticides can be understood only in context, as part of the whole to which it belongs the pollution of the total environment of mankind.
** The pollution entering our waterways comes from many sources; radio-active wastes from reactors, laboratories, hospitals, domestic wastes from cities, chemical wastes from factories.
** To these is added a new kind of fallow the chemical sprays applied to vegetables, fruits and crops in gardens, forests and fields. Many of the chemical agents in this alarming mélange initiate and augment the harmful effects of radiations through water usage.
** Ever since the use of chemical sprays, the problems of water purification have become complex and in rivers, all wastes combine to produce deposits that scientists refer to as gunk.
** For the most part this pollution is unseen and invisible and also a threat of widespread contamination of ground water.
** Rain, falling on the land with chemical sprayed, settles down through pores and cracks in soil and rock and storing itself deep as ground water. And so, in a real and very frightening sense, pollution of the ground water is pollution of water everywhere.
1. The word ‘pollution’ in Sentence number 1 means:
(1) Disease
(2) Infection
(3) Sickness
(4) Contamination
2. The word ‘melange’ means:
(1) Transformation
(2) Combination
(3) Association
(4) Infiltration
3. There is a threat of widespread contamination of ground water because:
(1) Rains are scarce these days
(2) Less number of trees are planted
(3) Chemicals and pesticides are vastly used
(4) Rivers are getting dry
4. The word ‘gunk’ refers:
(1) To microbes found in water supplies
(2) To the domestic water supplies
(3) To the nuclear fallouts in rivers
(4) To the unidentifiable deposits found in water
5. Which of the following is not related to chemical except:
(1) Pesticides
(2) Heat
(3) Pollutants
(4) Sands
6. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
He must train very hard —– he will lose the competition.
(1) or
(2) either
(3) nor
(4) neither
7. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
A small but strange creature emerged from its hole while I —— on the sea beach.
(1) walked
(2) went walking
(3) am walking
(4) had walked
8. Fill in the blank with the correct prefix.
A number of officers are waiting in the —— room to meet the Chairperson.
(1) ante
(2) anti
(3) sub
(4) ultra
9. Choose the most appropriate word from among the options similar in meaning to the word ‘Improvement’.
(1) Hindrance
(2) Deterioration
(3) Enhancement
(4) Preference
10. Fill in the blank choosing the correct option.
I ——- in a five star hotel but it is too expensive for me.
(1) stayed
(2) shall be staying
(3) was going to stay
(4) am staying
Download CEE Old Question Paper
For 10+2 Level (Group – A): L-1 – https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2024/42362-L1.pdf
For Degree Level (Group – B): L-2 – https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2024/42362-L2.pdf
For Post Graduate Level (Group – C): L-3 – https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/pdf2024/42362-L3.pdf
Instructions of Candidates
1. This test-booklet contains total 80 questions. All questions are compulsory. The booklet is bilingual. In case of any dispute, English version will be considered as final.
2. The test-booklet consists of 22 pages, including the cover sheet. Count the number of pages and questions before attempting the questions.
3. The blank space in the test-booklet may be used for rough work.
4. Each question is followed by four alternatives. Select only one, which you consider as the most appropriate. Shade the relevant circle against the corresponding question number on the OMR answer sheet. Selecting more than one answer for a question, even if one of the selected answers is correct, would result in its being treated as an incorrect answer.
5. i) Each correct answer will carry 2 marks.
ii) Wrong answers will carry negative marks of -0.5 each.
iii) Questions not attempted will carry no mark.
6. This booklet has three sections:
Part A – Language Proficiency – 20 Questions
Part B – Teaching Aptitude – 30 Questions
Part C -Reasoning Ability -30 Questions
7. The merit list will be based on 60% weightage to entrance examination marks; and 40% weightage to qualifying examination marks.
8. Responses should be marked on the OMR answer- sheet only. No answer should be written on the test- booklet
Syllabus for CEE
1. Language Proficiency indicating specific areas like comprehension, rearranging sentences, selecting suitable words for the blanks, finding out errors in parts of the sentences, finding out equivalent meaning to the given phrases, finding out suitable words for the incomplete sentences, sequencing, grammar which includes synonyms, antonyms, idioms, prepositions, tenses, articles.
2. Teaching Aptitude will cover specific areas like attitude towards education, children, and teaching profession; interest in teaching; leadership qualities & group management; emotional & social adjustment; intrapersonal & interpersonal skills; digital initiatives and pedagogy, NEP 2020, and school education, NCF-SE-2023 and general awareness of contemporary issues pertaining to school education.
3. Reasoning Ability indicating specific areas like verbal & non-verbal reasoning, missing numbers, number series, letter series, theme finding, jumbling, analogy, odd one out, arranging the statements in a sequential form, statement and conclusions, syllogism, logical problems, establishing relationships.
Examination Pattern for CEE
1. Separate questions will be for different groups:
Group-A : B.Sc.B.Ed./B.A.B.Ed./M.Sc.Ed.
Group-B: B.Ed./B.Ed.-M.Ed.
Group-C: M.Ed.
2. Level of question paper will be as given below:
Group-A – The level of questions will be such as expected of the candidate completing higher secondary/senior secondary education.
Group-B- The level of questions will be such as expected of the candidate completing graduation.
Group-C- The level of questions will be such as expected of the candidate completing graduation and professional education level.
3. Out of 80 questions, Language Proficiency in English 20 questions, Teaching Aptitude 30 questions and Reasoning Ability 30 questions.
4. Medium of Test Booklets will be only in English and Hindi.
5. No. of test items-80, Time Duration-120 minutes.
6. Correct answer(s) will carry 2 marks each, Wrong answer(s) will carry negative marking of (minus) -0.5 marks each and Question(s) unattended will carry no marks.