Organisation : State Council of Educational Research & Training
Exam : State Level National Talent Search Examination
Test : Scholastic Aptitude Test
Document Type : Previous Question Paper
Year : 2017
Class : X STD
Website : http://www.scert.kerala.gov.in/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=153&Itemid=44
SCERT NTSE SAT Previous Question Paper
Download Question Paper of State Level National Talent Search Examination Scholastic Aptitude Test Class X Sample Question is now available in the official website of State Council of Educational Research & Training.
Related : SCERT Kerala Class X Physics Sample Question Paper 2016 : www.pdfquestion.in/22206.html
Instructions To Candidates
Read the following instructions before you answer the questions. Answers are to be given in a Separate Omr Answer Sheet provided inside this booklet. Break the seal and start answering the questions once asked to do so.
1. Please write your ROLL NUMBER very clearly (only one digit in one block) as given in your Admission Card.
2. There are 100 questions in this test. The questions are arranged in the following order :
Questions 1 to 40 belong to Science Subjects.
Questions 41 to 60 are on Mathematics Subjects.
Questions 61 to 100 are on Social Science.
3. Select the most suitable answer for each question and completely darken the circle corresponding to the correct alternative as shown below.
4. All questions carry ONE MARK each.
5. There is no negative mark. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark.
6. Do not write your name on any part of the question booklet or on the answer sheet.
Download Question Paper :
SAT : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/ntsesat.pdf
Model Questions
Time : 90 Minutes
Maximum Marks : 100
Class – X SAT :
There are 100 questions in all. For each question four alternative answers are given marked as (1), (2), (3), (4). From these, find the most appropriate answer.
The number denoting this answer is there in the answer sheet against the question number concerned. Darken the circle with Blue/Black Ball Pen only. Record the answers thus in the OMR answer sheet only. Do not write anything in the question booklet except your Roll Number on the cover page and rough work in the space provided for the purpose.
1. Identify the wrongly matched pairs.
a. Monocyte – Actively phagocytic
b. Thrombocyte – Produces antibodies
c. Lymphocyte – Initiates blood clotting
d. Eosinophil – Associated with allergy
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (c) and (d)
2. The bacteria used for scavenging oil spills by digesting hydrocarbons of crude oil
(1) Rhizobium meliloti
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) Pseudomonas putida
(4) Escherichia Coli
3. Pickout the feature of dicot plant.
(1) Leaves are isobilateral
(2) Mesophyll is undifferentiated
(3) Roots show secondary growth
(4) Vascular bundles are closed
4. Which is NOT TRUE about Meiosis ?
(1) Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half
(2) Meiosis occurs during gametogenesis
(3) Meiosis I results in two daughter cells
(4) Meiosis I is similar to Mitosis
5. The plant that shows hydrophily
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Maize
(3) Pea
(4) Rafflesia
6. Which one of the following is NOT associated with the process of hearing ?
(1) Tympanum
(2) Semicircular canals
(3) Cochlea
(4) Auditory canal
7. The skeletal joint that enables movement in only one direction is
(1) Hinge joint
(2) Ball and socket joint
(3) Gliding joint
(4) Pivot joint
8. The part of the nucleus that plays a major role in the synthesis of ribosomes
(1) Chromatin reticulum
(2) Nuclear pore
(3) Nucleoplasm
(4) Nucleolus
9. Which is a fungal disease ?
(1) Athlete’s foot
(2) Filariasis
(3) Measles
(4) Rabies
10. Identify the statements related to dark reaction of photosynthesis.
a. Takes place in the stroma
b. Formation of ATP
c. Formation of glucose
d. Evolution of oxygen
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (b) and (d)
11. Which option indicates the parts of gynoecium ?
(1) Pollen grain, filament, ovary, tube nucleus
(2) Polar nuclei, stigma, ovule, style
(3) Style, stamen, stigma, generative nucleus
(4) Ovary, anther, filament, polar nuclei
12. Which is NOT TRUE about lactic acid fermentation ?
(1) Glycolysis is the initial phase
(2) Glucose is broken down incompletely
(3) Only two ATP molecules are generated
(4) Carbon dioxide is liberated
13. Match the items in Column – I with Column – II and select the correct option from those given below.
Column – I Column – II
a. Mutualism i. Lion and Rabbit
b. Commensalism ii. Loranthus on Mango tree
c. Parasitism iii. Flower and Butterfly
d. Predation iv. Vanda on Ficus tree
(1) a – iv b – iii c – i d – ii
(2) a – iii b – iv c – ii d – i
(3) a – ii b – i c – iv d – iii
(4) a – iii b – iv c – i d – ii
14. The hormone that promotes lactation and stimulates the uterus to contract
(1) Calcitonin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Vasopressin
15. A box measures 10 cm × 11.2 cm × 10 cm. Assume that this box is filled with neon gas at 1 atm pressure and 273 K temperature. How many electrons will be there in the box ?
(1) 6.022 × 1023
(2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 6.022 × 1022
(4) 3.011 × 1022
16. The key step for the manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process is given below. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + heat Which of the following are favourable for the contact process ?
A. Pressure of 2 atm and temperature of about 450°C
B. Removal of SO2 and O2
C. Use of V2O5 as catalyst
D. Removal of SO3
Choose the correct alternative.
(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (A), (B) and (C)
(3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)
17. Which of the following sets contain molecules with double or triple bonds ?
A. H2, Br2, H2O, NH3
B. F2, O2, CO2, Cl2
C. CO2, N2, H2, NH3
D. NH3, Cl2, CH4, CCl4
(1) (A) and (C)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D)
(4) (B) and (D)
18. The number of electrons present in d-subshell of copper atom
(1) 3
(2) 9
(3) 10
(4) 8
19. Match the following :
a. Eye wash i. Carbonic acid
b. Food preservation ii. Tartaric acid
c. Baking powder iii. Citric acid
d. Flavouring drinks iv. Boric acid
v. Oxalic acid
Select the correct alternative.
(1) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – i
(2) a – iii b – ii c – v d – iv
(3) a – iv b – iii c – ii d – v
(4) a – v b – iii c – ii d – i
20. Which of the following is the IUPAC name of the compound ?
(1) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl pentane
(2) 3 – Ethyl – 2, 3 – dimethyl hexane
(3) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl pentane
(4) 3 – Ethyl – 3, 4 – dimethyl hexane
21. Liquid ammonia bottles are cooled before opening the seal. Which of the following laws is applied here ?
(1) Boyle’s law
(2) Charle’s law
(3) Avogadro’s law
(4) Graham’s law
22. The components of the alloy used for making permanent magnets
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni and C
(2) Fe, Co, Ni and Al
(3) Fe, Ni, Cu and C
(4) Fe, Cu, Cr and C
23. Which of the following are true ?
A. Ionisation energy increases from left to right across a period
B. Atomic size decreases on going down a group
C. Metallic character decreases from left to right across a period
D. Electronegativity increases on going down a group
Choose the correct alternative.
(1) (A) and (B)
(2) (A) and (D)
(3) (B) and (D)
(4) (A) and (C)
24. Type of isomerism exhibited by the compound C4H8
(1) Chain isomerism only
(2) Chain isomerism and position isomerism
(3) Position isomerism only
(4) Functional isomerism only
25. Which of the following methods is used for the concentration of the ore galena ?
(1) Froth floatation
(2) Magnetic separation
(3) Leaching
(4) Gravity separation method
26. The number of moles of O2 required for the complete combustion of 11.6 g of butane
(1) 6.5 mol O2
(2) 11.6 mol O2
(3) 13 mol O2
(4) 1.3 mol O2
27. The gas produced when manganese dioxide is treated with hydrochloric acid
(1) Cl2
(2) O2
(3) H2
(4) H2O
28. Which of the following does NOT describe a ray that can be drawn for a concave mirror ?
(1) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting right back through the centre of curvature
(2) An incident ray through the centre of curvature, reflecting through the focal point
(3) An incident ray through the focal point, reflecting parallel to the principal axis
(4) An incident ray parallel to the principal axis, reflecting through the focal point
29. The potential difference between the points P and Q for the given network is
(1) 8 V
(2) 35 V
(3) 1 V
(4) 7 V
30. Which of the following statements about mass is false ?
(1) Mass remains constant at any place on the Earth
(2) SI Unit of mass is kg
(3) Mass of an object can be measured using spring balance
(4) Mass is a fundamental quantity
31. The SI Unit of specific heat capacity of a substance is
(1) Jkg–1K–1
(2) Calkg–1
(3) Jkg–1
(4) CalkgK–1
32. In a transformer the number of turns of primary coil and secondary coil are 5 and 4 respectively. If 240 V is applied to the primary coil, the ratio of current in primary coil and secondary coil is
(1) 5 : 4
(2) 5 : 10
(3) 4 : 5
(4) 8 : 12
34. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards at an initial speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is
(1) 1.25 J
(2) 0.5 J
(3) – 0.5 J
(4) – 1.25 J
35. On a stationary sail boat air is blown from a fan attached to the boat. The boat will
(1) Not move
(2) Spin around
(3) Move in the direction in which air is blown
(4) Move in the direction opposite to that in which air is blown
36. Sound signals were sent down from a ship return after 2s. Find out the depth of the sea, if the speed of sound in water is 1.5 km/s ?
(1) 3 km
(2) 150 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 1.5 km
37. An ice cube is suspended in vacuum in a gravity free hall. As the ice melts it
(1) Will retain its cubical shape
(2) Will change its shape to spherical
(3) Will fall down on the floor of the hall
(4) Will fly up
38. When a glass rod rubbed with silk is brought near the cap of an electroscope, then
(1) The leaf has an induced negative charge
(2) No charge is induced on the leaves
(3) Positive charge is induced on one leaf and negative charge on the other leaf
(4) The leaf has an induced positive charge
40. An iron ball and a wooden ball of same radius are released from a height h in vacuum. The time taken by both of them to reach the ground are
(1) Roughly equal
(2) Exactly equal
(3) Not equal
(4) Equal only at the equator
41. What is the smallest number which leaves the same remainder 1 on division by 18, 24, 30, 42 ?
(1) 2519
(2) 2520
(3) 2521
(4) 2522
42. What is the sum of all factors of 256 ?
(1) 511
(2) 512
(3) 1023
(4) 1024
43. The difference of the squares of two consecutive natural numbers is 101. What is the sum of the numbers ?
(1) 102
(2) 101
(3) 100
(4) 99
44. The sum of two numbers is 40 and their difference is 10. What is their product ?
(1) 325
(2) 350
(3) 375
(4) 400
45. The 5th term of an arithmetic sequenceis 5 and the sum of the first 5 terms is 55. What is its first term ?
(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18