Organisation : Vigyan Dhara
Exam : VSAT – Vigyan Dhara Scholarship Admission Test
Document Type : Sample Paper
Subjects : Physics, Chemistry, Biology/Math, Mental Aptitude
Class : XI Std
Website : vigyandhara [dot] in
VSAT Scholarship Admission Test Class XI Sample Paper
Sample Question Paper of Vigyan Dhara Scholarship Admission Test Class XI Standard for all subjects Question Paper is now available in the official website of Vigyan Dhara
Related : Vigyan Dhara Scholarship Admission Test VSAT Class X Sample Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/29609.html
Important Instructions
1. This booklet contains 50 Questions.
2. All questions are compulsory and carry 2 mark,
3. There will be no negative marking.
4. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/ Hall; however, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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Model Questions
Physics
1 The vectors?
P = aiˆ +a jˆ + 3kˆ and ?
Q = aiˆ –2 jˆ – kˆ are perpendicular to each other. The positive value of a is –
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
2 If the speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (p) are taken as fundamental units, the dimensions of gravitational constant (G) are –
(A) c0gp–3
(B) c2g3p–2
(C) c0g2p–1
(D) c2g2p–2
3 For a particle moving along a straight line, the displacement x depends on time t as x = ?t3 + ?t2 + ?t + ?. The ratio of its initial acceleration to its initial velocity depends –
(A) only on b and a
(B) only on a and b
(C) only on a and b
(D) only on ab
5 An artillery piece which consistently shoots its shell with the same muzzle speed has a maximum range of R. To hit a target which is R/2 from the gun and on the same level, at what elevation angle should the gun be pointed(height of gun from ground in neglected)-
(A) 30º
(B) 45º
(C) 60º
(D) 75º
Chemistry
21. A gaseous mixture contains CO2(g) and N2O(g) in 2 : 5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number of molecules of CO2(g) and N2O(g) is :
(A) 5 :2
(B) 2 : 5
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 5 : 4
22 A compound possess 8% sulphur by mass. The least molecular mass is :
(A) 200
(B) 400
(C) 155
(D) 355
23. The mass of 70% H2SO4 required for neutralisation of 1 mol of NaOH.
(A) 49 gm
(B) 98 gm
(C) 70 gm
(D) 34.3 gm
24 What weight of CaCO3 must be decomposed to produce the sufficient quantity of carbon dioxide to convert 21.2 kg of Na2CO3 completely in to NaHCO3. [Atomic mass Na = 23, Ca = 40]
CaCO3??? CaO + CO2 Na2 CO3 + CO2 + H2O ??? 2NaHCO3
(A) 100 Kg
(B) 20 Kg
(C) 120 Kg
(D) 30 Kg
25. Match the following
(a) Energy of ground state of He+ (i) + 6.04 eV
(b) Potential energy of orbit of H-atom (ii) –27.2 eV
(c) Kinetic energy of excited state of He+ (iii) 54.4 V
(d) Ionisation potential of He+ (iv) – 54.4 eV
(A) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv)
(B) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(C) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii)
(D) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
26. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 120 K to 480 K. If at 120 K the root-mean-square velocity of the gas molecules is v, at 480 K it becomes :
(A) 4v
(B) 2v
(C) v/2
(D) v/4
31. The values of Vander Waal’s constant “a” for the gases O2, N2, NH3 & CH4 are 1.36, 1.39, 4.17, 2.253 L2 atm mol-2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquified is:
(A) O2
(B) N2
(C) NH3
(D) CH4
32. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of a helium atom is
(A) two times that of a hydrogen molecules
(B) same as that of a hydrogen molecules
(C) four times that of a hydrogen molecules
(D) half that of a hydrogen molecules
33. The size of isoelectronic species F–, Ne and Na+ is affected by :
(A) nuclear charge (Z)
(B) valence principal quantum number (n)
(C) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
(D) none of the factors because their size is the same.
34. Which represents alkali metals (i.e. 1st group metals) based on (IE)1 and (IE)2 values (in kJ/mol) ? (IE)1 (IE)2 (IE)1 (IE)2
(A) X 500 1000
(B) Y 600 2000
(C) Z 550 7500
(D) M 700 1400
35. Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain enthalpy) is :
(A) F > Cl > Br > I
(B) F < Cl < Br < I
(C) F < Cl > Br > I
(D) Cl > Br > F > I
36. The order of basic character of given oxides is :
(A) Na2O > MgO > CuO > SiO2
(B) MgO > SiO2 > CuO > Na2O
(C) SiO2 > MgO > CuO > Na2O
(D) CuO > Na2O > MgO > SiO2
38. Consider the following statement and arrange in the order of true / false.
S1 : In SnCl2 the bonding takes place in ground state and the bond angle Cl–Sn–Cl is slightly less than 120º.
S2 : The molecular geometry of XeF7 + is pentagonal bipyramidal having two different Xe–F bond lengths.
S3 : In SF4 , the bond angles, instead of being 90º and 180º are 89º and 177º respectively due to the presence of a lone pair. (A) T T T (B) F T T (C) T T F (D) T F T
39. The correct order of increasing C-O bond length of CO, CO3 2–, CO2 is :
(A) CO3 2– < CO2 < CO
(B) CO2 < CO3 2– < CO
(C) CO < CO3 2– < CO2
(D) CO < CO2 < CO3 2–
40. S1 ? The HOMO in F2 – is ?2px = ?2py molecular orbitals. S2 ? Bond order of O2 – is more then O2 + . S3 ? NO+ is more stable than N2 + S4 ? C2 is more stable than C2 + State, in order, whether S1, S2, S3, S4 are true or false
(A) FFFT
(B) FTTT
(C) FTFT
(D) FFTT
Biology
41. In which of the following group of plants, sporophyte is completely dependent on gametophyte?
(A) Gymnosperms
(B) Bryophytes
(C) Angiosperms
(D) Both A and B
42. The cell organelle concerned with conversion of lipids/oils to glucose at the time of seed germination is
(A) Golgi
(B) Ribosome
(C) Peroxisome
(D) Glyoxysome
43. As we move from lower rank to higher rank in taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characters keep on
(A) Decreasing
(B) Increasing
(C) Either increase or decrease
(D) Remain same
44. Which of the following histones is linker histone?
(A) H1
(B) H2
(C) H3
(D) H4
45. Life cycle of angiosperms is
(A) Haplontic
(B) Diplontic
(C) Haplo-Diplontic
(D) None of these
46. The second word in scientific name is
(A) Genus name
(B) Species name
(C) Specific epithet
(D) Sub species
47. During which phase of cell cycle DNA replication occurs?
(A) Prophase
(B) S phase
(C) G1 phase
(D) G2 phase
48. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is concerned with
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Spindle formation
(C) Calcium storage
(D) Protein modification
49. Phycobillin pigment are found in
(A) Green algae
(B) Brown algae
(C) Red algae
(D) Both A and C
50. Which of the following is meant for ex-situ conservation of plants?
(A) Museum
(B) Botanical garden
(C) Herbarium
(D) Monograph
51. The functional junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called
(A) Desmosome
(B) Synapse
(C) Nodes of ranvier
(D) Tight junction
52. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. junction and its function?
(A) Tight junction – Promotes leaking of substances across a tissue
(B) Adhering junction – Keeps neighbouring cells together by cementing
(C) Gap junction – Connects the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions and small molecules
(D) Gap junction – Facilitates the cells to communicate with each other
53. Contractile unit of muscle is part of myofibril between
(A) Z-line and I-band
(B) Z-line and Z-line
(C) Z-line and A-band
(D) A-band and I-band
54. How much amount of blood passes through the kidneys in a healthy person?
(A) 1100-1200 ml/hr
(B) 600-700 ml/min
(C) 1100-1200 ml/min
(D) 180 litre/min
55. The somatic neural system relays impulses
(A) From CNS to involuntary organs
(B) From CNS to skeletal muscles
(C) From PNS to smooth muscles
(D) From PNS to voluntary organs