Organisation : Delhi Law Academy
Exam : DU LL.M
Subject : LL.M
Year : 2017
Document Type : Past Papers
Website : https://www.delhilawacademy.com/
Delhi Law Academy DU LL.M. Past Papers
1. For the purpose of ‘the scienter’ rule, animals mansuetae naturae means
(a) animals harmless by nature
(b) animals dangerous by nature
(c) endangered animals
(d) wild animals.
Related : Delhi Law Academy DU LLB Entrance Exam Model Question Paper 2017 : www.pdfquestion.in/25950.html
2. Match the maxims mentioned in List I with their meanings in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(a) Ex turpi causa non oritur actio
(b) Qui facit per alium facit per se
(c) Salus populi suprema lex
(d) Res ipsa loquitur
List II
1. The welfare of people is supreme law
2. The thing speaks for itself
3. No action arises from an illegal or immoral conduct
4. He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself
Codes :
(a) (a)-3,(b)-2,(c)- 4,(d)- 1
(b) (a)-3,(b)-4,(c)- 1,(d)- 2
(c) (a)-1,(b)-4,(c)- 3,(d)- 2
(d) (a)-4,(b)-1,(c)- 3,(d)- 2
3. By which Amendment to the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 the explanation added to the definition of “Consumer” under section 2(l)(d) has been amended?
(a) 1993 Amendment
(b) 2002 Amendment
(c) 2011 Amendment
(d) 2015 Amendment.
4. Under section 2(c) of the Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991 “Handling” in relation to any hazardous substance, means
(a) the manufacture, production, treatment, package, storage, use, collection, destruction, conversion, offering for sale, transfer or the like of such hazardous substance.
(b) the manufacture, processing, treatment, package, storage, transportation by vehicle, use, collection, destruction, transfer or the like of such hazardous substance.
(c) the manufacture, production, treatment, package, storage, transportation by vehicle, use, collection, destruction, conversion, transfer or the like of such hazardous substance.
(d) the manufacture, processing, treatment, package, storage, transportation by vehicle, use, collection, destruction, conversion, offering for sale, transfer or the like of such hazardous substance.
5. Which provision of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 provides for establishment of Consumer Disputes Redressal Agencies?
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 13
(c) Section 15
(d) Section 17.
6. Which of the following jurists introduced the doctrine of equality of States into International Law and declared that a small republic was no less sovereign than the most powerful kingdom, just as a dwarf was as much a man as a giant ?
(a) Vattel
(b) Hugo Grotius
(c) Alberico Gentili
(d) Francisco Vitoria.
7. The American continent would no longer be a subject of colonization by a European power and any attempt by them to extend their system to any portion of American continent would be regarded as dangerous to the peace and safety of the United States. Preceding statement is an illustration of
(a) Stimson Doctrine
(b) Estrada Doctrine
(c) Monroe Doctrine
(d) Calvo Doctrine.
8. The Universality Principle is one of the main general principles on which States claim a more or less extensive penal jurisdiction at the present under International Law. Under this principle the jurisdiction is determined by reference to
(a) the place of commission of offence
(b) the nationality or national character of criminal
(c) national interest injured by the offence
(d) custody of the person committing the offence.
9. Under which of the following cases did the International Court of Justice regard the straight baseline system as a valid principle of International Law in view of the special geographic conditions of the sea ?
(a) Anglo-Norwegian Fisheries Case (UK v. Norway), ICJ Reports 1951
(b) Qatar v. Bahrain, ICJ Reports 2001
(c) North Sea Continental Cases, ICJ Reports 1969
(d) Fisheries Jurisdiction Case (Merits) (UK v. Iceland), ICJ Reports 1974.
10. Each member of the UN is permitted to send to the General Assembly not more than :
(a) Two Representatives
(b) Three Representatives
(c) Four Representatives
(d) Five Representatives.
11. Which of the following Articles of the United Nations Charter confers the primary responsibility to maintain international peace and security upon the Security Council ?
(a) Article 1(1), UN Charter
(b) Article 24, UN Charter
(c) Article 25, UN Charter
(d) Article 27, UN Charter.
12. Which of the following sources is mentioned as one of the subsidiary means for determination of rules of International Law in Article 38(l)(d) of the Statute of International Court of Justice ?
(a) General Assembly Resolutions
(b) Unilateral Acts of States
(c) Judicial Decisions
(d) Rules of International Comity.
13. Which Article of International Law Commission Draft Code on State Responsibility deal with the rule of “Exhaustion of Local Remedies” ?
(a) 43
(b) 44
(c) 45
(d) 46.
14. The “Uniting for Peace” Resolution of 1950 implies that
(a) the General Assembly can take up an issue, with the permission of the Security Council, which is likely to threaten the international peace and security and which the Security Council has failed to resolve as a result of a veto
(b) the General Assembly can take up an issue which is likely to threaten international peace and security and which the Security Council has failed to resolve as a result of a veto
(c) the General Assembly can take up an issue which is likely to threaten the international peace and security in emergent situations
(d) None of the above.
15. The “Optional Clause” in relation to jurisdiction of International Court of Justice provides that:
(a) The State parties to the present Statute may at any time declare that they recognize as compulsory ipso facto, and without special agreement, in relation to any other State accepting the same obligation, the jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice.
(b) The State parties to the present Statute may at any time declare, with the approval of the General Assembly, that they recognize as compulsory ipso facto, and without special agreement, in relation to any other State accepting the same obligation, the jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice.
(c) The State parties to the present Statute may at any time declare, with the approval of the Security Council, that they recognize as compulsory ipso facto, and without special agreement, in relation to any other State accepting the same obligation, the jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice.
(d) None of the Above.
16. ‘Full Powers’ under Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969 means:
(a) objection to treaty provisions
(b) a formal document designating a person or persons to represent the State in the treaty negotiations
(c) power to terminate the treaty unilaterally
(d) power to compel a state to become a party to the treaty.
17. The principle whereby a State can prevent a rule of customary law becoming binding on it in the first place, is called
(a) Jus cogens
(b) Pacta sunt servanda
(c) Persistent objector rule
(d) Opinio juris sive necessitates.
18. Recently in 2016, in which of the following cases, the International Court of Justice rejected the case against certain nuclear-armed States for failing to stop the spread of nuclear weapons?
(a) Cook Islands v. Union of India
(b) Marshall Islands v. USA
(c) Madagascar v. France
(d) Marshall Islands v. United Kingdom.
19. The intermediary is liable for the unlawful third-party information hosted by him under the Information Technology Act, 2000
1. if it initiates the transmission.
2. if it modifies the information contained in the transmission.
3. if it fails to expeditiously remove or disable the access to unlawful material upon receiving actual knowledge.
4. Intermediary shall not be liable for hosting third party information.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Only 4 is correct.
20. Which of the followings can happen in ‘Denial of Service Attack’?
1. Flooding the computer with more requests than it can handle.
2. It can lead to server crash.
3. The authorised users are unable to access the service.
4. It is punishable under section 43(f) of the Information Technology Act, 2000.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) All of the above are correct.
21. Digital signatures include/s………..
1. Asymmetric cryptosystem
2. Thumb impression in BHIM app
3. Quantum cryptography
4. Biometrics
Choose the correct option from below
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) Only 1 is correct
(d) All of the above are correct.
22. The adjudicating officer under the Information Technology Act, 2000
1. can hold an enquiry against a person for contraventions of provisions under chapter IX
2. can adjudicate where claim or damage does not exceed Rs. 5 Crores.
3. should not be below the rank of Joint Secretary to the Government of India or equivalent rank under the State.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) None of the above is correct
(b) All are correct
(c) 1 and 2 correct
(d) Only 3 is correct.
23. The offence of child pornography is punishable under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) 66A
(b) 67
(c) 67B
(d) 67C.
24. Match the cases mentioned in List I with the principles/provisions contained in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List I
(a) Ashok Hurra v. Rupa Hurra
(b) Gita Hariharan v. RBI
(c) Lilly Thomas v. Union of India
(d) T. Sareetha v. T. Venkatasbbaiah
List II
1. Restitution of Conjugal Rights
2. Uniform Civil Code
3. Mother as a natural guardian
4. Divorce by Mutual Consent
Codes :
(a) (a)-4,(b)-3,(c)- 2,(d)-1
(b) (a)-4,(b)- 2,(c)- 3,(d)-1
(c) (a)-3,(b)-4,(c)- 2,(d)-1
(d) (a)-3,(b)- 1,(c)-4,(d)-2
25. When two persons are descendants of a common ancestress but by different ancestors, they are said to be related to each other by
(a) Uterine Blood
(b) Full Blood
(c) Half Blood
(d) Fosterage.
Frequently Asked Questions
Q. Where is the classroom located?
A. Our classroom is in Sector 43, Gurgaon (opposite the Metro station)
Q. Who is the faculty?
A. Most law classes will be exclusively taken by Madan Sir himself.
Q. What is the fee?
A. Please check the fee schedule given above in this page for full details on the fees and installments.
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A. Yes, you can pay in installments. The details for the same are given in our fee schedule above, please check it to know more.
Q. What is the course duration?
A. The course will be completed in 5 months.
Q. How can the course be completed in 5 months?
A. The answer lies in our superb and differentiated teaching methods and our rigorous class schedule. Madan Sir himself teaches most law subjects. With his vast experience he has perfected over the years the content and teaching techniques using technology aids.
Q. Will we be given study material and Notes?
A. Yes, all our students will be provided with over 1800 pages of beautifully crafted notes which would be ideal for revision later. Each page of these notes is created by Madan Sir himself and features his comments and explanatory notes on all important topics.
Q. What is the schedule of classes?
A. Classes run from 10 am to 4 pm on Saturdays and Sundays, with a 30-minute lunch break.
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A. Madan Sir encourages a question-and-answer style of classroom interaction, so our classroom students are free to ask doubts whenever they wish.
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A. Yes, we have tied up with some high-quality vendors to provide PG accommodation near our classroom. You would receive a clean, hygienic living and studying environment located very close to the classroom to minimize your travel and commute.
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A. Yes, this is possible. Please check the description above to register for our next FREE Demo Class.
About The Exam
WHAT :
** Admissions are now open at Delhi Law Academy for classroom batches for LLM Entrance
** Suitable for all major LLM Entrance Exams – DU LLM, CLAT LLM, AILET LLM and others
** Weekend batches are available
WHEN :
** New batches commencing on 10th February and 17th February
** Weekend batch: Classes on Saturdays and Sundays from 10am to 4pm (with lunch break)
** Batch duration: 5 months
WHERE :
** All classes conducted at our state-of-the-art classroom located at Sector 43, Gurgaon
** Conveniently located – just 6 minutes walk from metro station
WHO :
** Head Law Faculty and Curriculum-in-charge: Prof K Madan
** Madan Sir personally conducts most law classes
** Sir has perfected his own teaching techniques: all teaching done through projector and power point presentations
** In every class, 10 minutes are earmarked for doubts and direct interaction. This helps students clear their concepts
WHY :
** Efficient for you – we complete the entire course in 5 months, in sharp contrast to 10-12 months at other institutes
** Superb faculty – Madan Sir is one of India’s best law teachers who has the unique knack of making even the most abstruse legal concepts easy to grasp
** We leave no stone unturned to ensure that each of our students succeeds. We expect only serious students to join us
HOW :
Fee: Weekend batches: Rs 80,000 (incl. GST)
** Payment in 4 installments
** DLA offers scholarship assistance to meritorious students