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SSSIHL Admissions Test BBA Model Question Paper : Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

Name of the Organisation : Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning
Exam : SSSIHL BBA Admissions Test Question Paper
Degree : Undergraduate Programme
Subject : BBA
Document Type : Model Question Paper
Website : https://www.sssihl.edu.in/
Download Model Question Paper : https://www.pdfquestion.in/uploads/25117-BBAmodel.pdf

SSSIHL Admissions Test BBA Question Paper

** Click on any of the Above links to download the BBA Question Paper. You will be able to view and save the file in PDF format on your computer.

Related : SSSIHL UG Admissions Test History Model Question Paper : www.pdfquestion.in/25112.html

Instructions To Candidates

Sub-test I :
Verbal Skills 40 Questions (40 X 1 = 40 Marks)
Short Essay Test (1 X 10 = 10 Marks)

Sub-Test II :
Numerical Skills 40 Questions (40 X 1 = 40 Marks)

Sub-Test III :
Reasoning Skills 40 Questions (40 X 1 = 40 Marks)
Total Time: 2 Hours And 20 Minutes

1. You are required to write your
(i) Applicant ID
(ii) Question Paper Code no. and SHADE THE NUMERALS appropriately in the space provided on the RESPONSE SHEET.
(iii) Room number and
(iv) Date.

2. Choose the correct answer from the Question Paper and SHADE THE CORRECT RESPONSE viz., A, B, C, D or E. Only one response must be clearly shaded for each question. More than one entry, unclear entries or wrong entries will ATTRACT NEGATIVE MARKS.
3. Please DO NOT WRITE your name or Applicant ID or the answer in the QUESTION PAPER BOOKLET.
4. Use of electronic calculator is strictly not permitted.

SUB TEST – I :

Verbal Skills

Instructions :
Each question, 1 through 40, is followed by 5 answers – A through E. Indicate your correct answer by shading the appropriate choice viz., A, B, C, D or E, provided against each question number in the Response Sheet.

SAMPLE QUESTIONS :
Questions 1 to 12 are based on the following passages.
Both of the following passages concern World War II, 1939–1945. The first passage is excerpted from an article on the events leading up to World War II. The second passage is a comment by Anne Frank. She was the teenager whose diary of her experiences hidden in a secret annex during World War II became famous after her death.

Passage 1 :
World War I (1914–1918) ended for Germany in total defeat. The German people were dissatisfied: the peace treaty was a great humiliation, there was no money, no work and no hope of a better future. In the chaotic 1920s, an unknown Austrian worked his way up to the position of “Fuhrer” (leader) of an insignificant political party in Munich.

His name was Adolf Hitler; the party called itself the NSDAP and its followers were called “Nazis.” After an unsuccessful coup d’etat, Hitler was put in a comfortable prison, where he wrote his plans for world domination in a book called Mein Kampf (My Struggle).

Hitler said that the German people were “Aryans,” the strongest and best race. All other races were inferior, especially the Jews, whom he blamed for everything that was wrong and for all Germany’s defeats. Hitler’s ideas appealed to many Germans and the NSDAP soon became powerful. In 1933, Hitler was appointed Chancellor of Germany and, within a year, consolidated all power within his grasp.

Passage 2 :
I don’t believe that the big men, the politicians and the capitalists alone, are guilty of the war. Oh no, the little man is just as guilty, otherwise the peoples of the world would have risen in revolt long ago!

There’s in people simply an urge to destroy, an urge to kill, to murder and rage, until all mankind, without exception, undergoes a great change, wars will be waged, everything that has been built up, cultivated, and grown will be destroyed and disfigured, after which mankind will have to begin all over again.

1. The writer of passage 1 uses the redundant phrase “total defeat” (line 1) to
(A) imply that the Germans were not at fault for losing World War I
(B) infer that the Germans were overpowered from the start
(C) emphasize the German feeling of complete and utter disgrace after their defeat
(D) hint that not all Germans felt the same way about the debacle
(E) suggest the Germans deserved their defeat in both World War I and World War II

2. Why does the writer place the word Fuhrer (line 3) in quotation marks?
(A) to draw attention to it
(B) to show it is a foreign word
(C) to comment ironically that Hitler was no leader
(D) to make sure that people pronounce it correctly
(E) because it is deliberately misspelled for emphasis

3. From the details in the passage, what can you infer was Hitler’s reason for writing Mein Kampf, his plans for world domination?
(A) He did not have enough to do in jail.
(B) He always had literary aspirations and considered himself a fine writer.
(C) He needed the money that the publication would bring to finance his political aspirations.
(D) He wanted to justify and legitimatize his strategy to the widest possible audience.
(E) He had been asked to create the plan by his political party.

4. According to passage 1, the Nazis oppression of the Jews was marked by all the following events except
(A) forbidding Jews from marrying non-Jews
(B) depriving Jews of citizenship
(C) forbidding Jews from working as teachers and from using public transportation
(D) blaming Jews for Germany’s defeat in World War I
(E) forcing Jews to leave the country

5. Based on the details in passage 1, why do you think Hitler’s ideas appealed to many Germans?
(A) Hitler came from a well-educated, cultured family so he attracted people looking for a strong leader.
(B) The Germans were looking for someone who could both find a scapegoat for their humiliation and improve economic conditions.
(C) Hitler was an outsider so he could bring fresh, new ideas into the country.
(D) The Germans were swayed by the high quality of Hitler’s writing in Mein Kampf.
(E) Unlike other leaders of the time, Hitler could carry through on his promises.

6. Passage 1 is organized according to
(A) chronological order
(B) least-to-most important events
(C) most-to-least important events
(D) cause and effect
(E) reasons and causes

SUB TEST – II :

Numerical Skills

Instructions :
Each question, 41 through 80, is followed by 5 answers – A through E. Indicate your correct answer by shading the appropriate choice viz., A, B, C, D or E, provided against each question number in the RESPONSE SHEET.

Max. Marks: 40 x 1 : 40

Sample Questions :
41. The ratio between the number of passengers travelling by I and II class between the two railway stations is 1 : 50, whereas the ratio of I and II class fares between the same stations is 3 : 1. If on a particular day, ?1325 revenue collected from the passengers travelling between these stations, then what was the amount collected from the II class passengers?
(A) 1000
(B) 850
(C) 750
(D) 1250
(E) None of these

42. A and B enter into a partnership with ?50,000 and ?60,000 respectively. C joins them after x months contributing ?70,000 and B leaves x months before the end of the year. If they share the profit in the ratio of 20 : 18: 21, then find the value of x.
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 9
(D) 8
(E) None of these

43. Rahul started a business with a capital of ?8,000. After six months, Sanjay joined him with an investment of some capital. If at the end of the year each of them gets equal amount as profit, how much did Sanjay invest in the business?
(A) 16,000
(B) 17,500
(C) 18,000
(D) 16,500
(E) None of these

44. A manufacturer of a certain item can sell all he can produce at the selling price of ?60 each. It costs him ?40 in materials and labour to produce each item and he has overhead expenses of ?3000 per week in order to operate that plant. The number of units he should produce and sell in order to make a profit of at least ?1000 per week is
(A) 250
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 200
(E) None of these

45. If the selling price of a product is increased by ?162, then the business would make a profit of 17% instead of a loss of 19%. What is the cost price of the product?
(A) 540
(B) 450
(C) 360
(D) 600
(E) None of these

SUB TEST – III :

Reasoning Skills

Instructions :
Each question, 81 through 120, is followed by 5 answers – A through E. Indicate your correct answer by shading the appropriate choice viz., A, B, C, D or E, provided against each question number in the RESPONSE SHEET.

Max. Marks : 40 x 1 : 40

81. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) Sand
(B) Stone
(C) Cement
(D) Brick
(E) Wall

82. If Yellow is called Green, Green is called Black, Black is called White, White is called Red, Red is called Blue, Blue is called Orange then what is the colour of milk?
(A) White
(B) Black
(C) Red
(D) Green
(E) None of these

83. Pointing to a photograph Seema said ‘He is the only grandson of my mother’s father-in-law’. How is the man in photograph related to Seema ?
(A) Father
(B) Uncle
(C) Cousin
(D) Brother
(E) Cannot be determined

84. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘×’ means ‘÷’, ‘÷’ means ‘–’ and ‘–’ means ‘+’ what is the value of 17 + 15 – 135 × 9 ÷ 70 ?
(A) 270
(B) 240
(C) 170
(D) 200
(E) None of these

85. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the fourth, the fifth, the sixth, the eighth and the eleventh letters of the word GOURMANDISE using each letter only once first letter of the word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is X. If no such word can be formed your answer is Y—
(A) D
(B) R
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y

86. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Nickel
(D) Copper
(E) Brass

87. In a certain code EXTRA is written as % 5 # 73 and NOSE is written as 4 @ 8%; how is STORE written in that code ?
(A) 5#@7%
(B) 8#@7%
(C) 8#@%5
(D) 8@75%
(E) None of these

88. I n a row of children facing North, Shamika is third to the right of Nikhil who is seventeenth from the right end of the row. Ravi is fifth to the left of Shamika and is twentieth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row?
(A) 39
(B) 38
(C) 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

89. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXAMINATION each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these

90. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code ?
(A) YTISNDE
(B) YITSNED
(C) YTISNED
(D) YITSNDE
(E) None of these

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