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Joint Graduate Entrance Exam in Biology & Interdisciplinary Life Sciences Sample Question Paper : admissions.ncbs.res.in

Name of the Organisation : National Centre for Biological Sciences
Exam : Graduate Entrance Examination
Subject : Biology
Year : 2015
Document Type : Model & Past Question Papers

Website : https://www.ncbs.res.in/
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Biology and Interdisciplinary Life Sciences Question Paper :

Section A: General
1. Which sense has the best frequency resolution?
a. Sight
b. Smell
c. Hearing
d. Touch

Related : Tata Institute of Fundamental Research GS Exam Physics-X Question Paper 2017 : www.pdfquestion.in/13112.html

2. The sun produces energy through which of the following processes?
a. Nuclear fission
b. Nuclear fusion
c. Photoelectric effect
d. None of the above

3. The sum of all numbers from 1 to 1,000,000 is
a. 500,000,000,000
b. 500,000,000,500
c. 500,000,500,000
d. 500,500,000,000

4. Four friends (A, B, C and D) are sitting on a wall. Seen from the front, A is sitting next to B, while C is sitting somewhere to the left D. How many possible seating arrangements are consistent with this information?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

5. While giving a lecture on a mike, you hear a screeching feedback sound. How should you fix this while still staying audible?
a. Decrease the speaker volume and move the mike closer to your mouth.
b. Increase the speaker volume and move the mike closer to your mouth.
c. Decrease the speaker volume and move the mike further from your mouth.
d. Increase the speaker volume and move the mike further from your mouth.

6. A Drosophila fruitfly female weighs about 2 milligrams. The blood volume for this fly is approximately:
a. one millilitre
b. one microlitre
c. one nanolitre
d. one picolitre

7. A sphere of one metre diameter is placed in cylinder of one metre diameter and one metre height. Water poured to fill the residual volume. This volume will fill
a. A sphere of fifty centimetre diameter
b. Two sphere of fifty centimetre diameter
c. Four spheres of fifty centimetre diameter
d. Two spheres of one metre diameter

8. If I am dropped somewhere remote on earth without a watch or compass, which of the following can I not determine from local visual observations?
a. Latitude
b. Longitude
c. North
d. Local time

9. Each pixel in a liquid crystal display (LCD) colour television is composed of 3 sub-pixels that are designed to transmit blue, green and red colour because:
a. White light is made of three primary colours, blue, green and red
b. Liquid crystals can only filter these primary colours
c. The human retina contains only three types of colour-sensitive cells
d. These colours are the most pleasing to the human eye

10. At time t = 0, a set of three points A, B and C forms an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm. If two of the sides of the triangle are decreasing in length at the rate of 0.1 cm/sec and the third side is increasing at the rate of 0.1 cm/sec, how long will it take for the system to just cease to form a triangle?
a. 5 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds

11. A hemisphere and a cone have the same base and volume. Which has the greater surface area?
a. The sphere
b. The cone
c. Both have equal surface areas
d. It cannot be determined from the given information

13. (80 x 0.40)3 (40 x 1.6)2 / (128)4 = (2)x. What is the value of x?
a. -1
b. -2
c. 2
d. 5

14. The heights of adult males follows a Gaussian (normal) distribution. Given three males at random, what is the chance that all of them are shorter than one standard deviation below the mean?
a. 1/216
b. 1/27
c. 0
d. 2/3

15. 50 fish in a small lake were captured, marked with special tags, and released back into the lake. The next day, 40 fish were captured and 10 of these were found to have tags. The fish are smart, and once captured are less likely to be captured a second time. Which of the following statements best reflects your state of knowledge about the number of fish in the lake?
a. There are at least 50, but probably less than 200
b. There are at least 80, but probably less than 200
c. There are at least 50, and probably more than 200
d. There are at least 80, and probably more than 200

Section B: Physics :
1. A metal block is suspended in an empty tank from a scale indicating a weight of W. The tank is then filled with water until the block is covered. If the density of the metal is three times the density of water, what apparent weight of the block does the scale now read?
a. ½ W
b. 2/3 W
c. W
d. 3/2 W

2. Pigeons don’t get electrocuted even when they sit on high–voltage wires all the time, because:
a. Their feet have a large dielectric constant, which electrically insulates them
b. Their feet have a very low dielectric constant
c. The air around them electrically insulates them
d. The electric potential difference across their bodies, due to the wires, is negligible

3. If a bulb is marked 100 W, 250 V, then
a. It always produces 100 W of light
b. It always draws 0.4 A current
c. Its resistance is 625 O
d. All of the above are correct

4. A brass vessel feels much colder to touch than a wooden vessel on a chilly day. Which of the following might explain this observation?
a. Brass has a higher thermal conductivity than wood
b. Brass has a higher specific heat capacity than wood
c. The thermal conductivity of our hand depends on the material we touch
d. Brass is heavier than wood

5. I pour water from a height of 1 m onto the floor, and wait till it has come to rest as a puddle. Where does most of the initial potential energy go?
a. As sound
b. As heat
c. It is transferred to the earth’s motion
d. Into surface tension

Section C: Chemistry
1. You are given 10 ml of a 1 M salt solution and asked to make 10 ml of a 1 X 10-3 M salt solution. The best way to do this is:
a. Do three serial dilutions of 1 ml solution in 9 ml water, starting with the 1 M solution
b. Take 1 ml of the 1M solution and add to 999 ml of water
c. Take 10 µl of the 1M solution and add to 9990 µl of water
d. Take 0.1 ml of a 1M solution and add to 9.9ml of water

2. How do polar covalent bonds differ from non-polar covalent bonds?
a. In a polar covalent bond the electrons are shared equally between the atoms
b. In a non-polar covalent bond there is a charge attraction between the atomic nuclei
c. There is a large difference in electro negativity of the atoms in a non-polar bond
d. There is a large difference in electro negativity of the atoms in a polar bond

3. The final stage of conversion of vegetable matter into coal is called
a. Anthracite
b. Bituminous
c. Lignite
d. None of above

4. The unit of the rate constant of a second-order process is:
a. mol L-1 s-1
b. s-1
c. L mol-1 s-1
d. mol L-1

5. Indicate the correct statement
a. Na+ is smaller than Na atom
b. Na+ is larger than Na atom
c. Cl- (ion) is smaller than Cl atom
d. Cl- (ion) and CI atom are equal in size

Section D: Biology
1. During photosynthesis the source of oxygen is:
a. Water
b. CO2
c. Glucose
d. Chlorophyll

2. How many molecules of dsDNA does a Drosophila cell nucleus contain?
a. 2 x 109
b. 46
c. 8
d. 0

3. An allele has different effects depending on whether it was inherited from the father or mother. This is most likely due to
a. Sex-linkage
b. Imprinting
c. Penetrance
d. Epistasis

4. Polyomavirus (a DNA virus) causes tumors in “nude mice” (nude mice do not have a thymus, because of a genetic defect) but not in normal mice. The best interpretation is that
a. Macrophages are required to reject polyomavirus-induced tumors.
b. Natural Killer cells can reject polyomavirus-induced tumors without help from T lymphocytes
c. T lymphocytes play an important role in the rejection of polyomavirus-induced tumours.
d. B lymphocytes play no role in rejection of polyomavirus-induced tumors.

5. Which of the following sequence correctly describes the cell cycle?
a. G1 phase: G2 phase: Mitosis: Cytokinesis
b. Mitosis: G1 phase: G2 phase: Cytokinesis
c. Cytokinesis: Mitosis: G1 phase: G2 phase
d. S phase: G2 phase: Mitosis: Cytokinesis: G1 phase

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